I'm afraid you are mistaken here. Check for example what this site has to say about the definition of inerrancy.
" Generally, "inerrancy" refers only to the original handwritten (a.k.a. autograph) copy of each of the books of the Bible. Subsequent copies may contain accidental copyist errors or intentional additions/deletions by forgers."
Is the Bible inerrant -- free of error
Yes I'm afraid we are using the word differently.
Sorry, but I am still not clear on what you mean by "inerrancy."
Going be the definition you provided, I take "inerrancy" to mean that what was written in the original copy was true. That is, the original copy contained no erroneous statements.
When you were previously asked for evidence of inerrancy, you referred to
Message 131 and
Message 133. But those messages were mainly arguments that currently available copies of the text should not have deviated too far from the original copy. I don't see that as having anything at all to do with inerrancy.