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Member (Idle past 1373 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
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Author | Topic: HaShem - Yahweh or Jehovah? | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Buzsaw Inactive Member |
quote: -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Exodus 6:2-3 God spoke to Moses and said to him, "I am the LORD. I appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob as El Shaddai, but I did not make myself known to them by My name יהוה." -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- now, LORD = YHWH = יהוה. it's all the same exact word. El is a less formal title for god, related to "Elowah" which is the singular of "Eloyhim" by which god is also called. Shaddai means "almighty" so he's saying that he refered to himself simply as the mightiest god to the patriarchs, but now he's giving moses his real name. it's silly to render this text "by My name LORD" because it doesn't say his name is אדני it says יהוה. the translator is trying to get the name right, in english. In Exodus 6:2-3, the translators who translated YHWH to Lord rather than Jehovah, misstranslated it on purpose. Adonai/Lord is a different Hebrew word. Yaweh/YHWH does not translate to adonai. Yaweh is a proper name, whereas adonai is descriptive of Jehovah's function. Jehovah is, i.e master/lord. Elohim is simply a description of what Jehovah is. He is a god. So one might correctly say, The adonai elohim, Jehovah, i.e. the lord god, Jehovah. Only one of these is the proper name/surname of the lord god, Jehovah. The old 1901 American Standard translation is one of the few which kept the two words translated literally. So in my Bible, It is correctly rendered, "Jehovah" in both verses 2 and 3. That's one reason I use the old American Standard. It is translated exact and lets the reader do the interpretation. Imo, translators should not interpret. Interpreting taints the opinionated product. Just because the late century BC Jews had the superstition about speaking and writing god's name most translators think they need to do so also, but imo, if God inpired the writers to write it in the first place it should be kept as written. This is why there's so much confusion about Allah and the Bible. It's not in there. The closest name to it is one of the chiefs of Edom mentioned in the first or second chapter of I Chronicles. My American Standard Bible renders this chief as, "Allah," but the KJ and some others put it close but not quite the same. I forgot, without looking it up. This message has been edited by buzsaw, 11-22-2004 09:35 PM The immeasurable present is forever consuming the eternal future and extending the infinite past. buz
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
"jehovah" is an english reading of a germanic transliteration of of YHWH with the vowels belonging to ADNY. "yahweh" is the best reading of the proper name. Jehovah is the most correct modern translated meaning of the proper name. That's why when it is used it is translated that way. To try to say we should read the name in the Hebrew without translating it to English makes no sense. Why? Because by the same token if you insist on reading it in the Hebrew, to be consistent then you should insist that there should be no English translation of any of the Bible, but that every word of it should be read in the Hebrew language.
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
"jacob" is just an anglicized pronounciation of "ya'aqob." it's still essentially the same name. jehovah is a fundamentally different name than yahweh. Drop the J's and the v's which were both additions to the English language and here's how these two names look. 1. JACOB = YACOB = YA'ACOB = YCB2. JEHOVAH = YAHOAH = YAHWEH = YHWH How is #1 fundamentally more different than #2? The only fundamental difference I see is that one has only two cylables and no v's, these two consonents being later additions to the English language. Early English texts would have no J's or V's in either of these names, but good translators translate into the language of the people. Thus, "Jehovah" and "Jacob." Nearly all translators, educated and authoritative professionals in linguistics, would support my argument since that's how they translated the various versions.
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
It was in the second and third centuries that the Divine name was removed from both the OT and the NT. Where is your documentation that the divine/proper name of God, "Jehovah/Yehoah" was removed in the early NT translations?
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
uh, no. most translators today would NOT support your argument. it's simply not translated that way any more. it's well know to anyone even the slightest bit versed in hebrew that the name "YHWH" is rendered with the vowels of adonai, so the reader says "adonai" and not "yahweh." no person the slightest bit educated in hebrew would EVER read this as the combination of the two words. I know of no Hebrew scholars who would literally translate the literal word YHWH as Adonai, nor does the Hebrew to English interlinear do so. You loose all the original consonents to form a completely different word with a different meaning. The sole reason most translations render the name as "adonai" is that since the late BC centuries there was the unfounded superstition that the name of God was too holy to be written or translated, so they dropped the proper name of God from the translation and used an entirely different word, adonai, which is not a proper name but a discriptive word depicting the function of YHWH/Yahweh meaning simply lord/master. HHWH/Yahweh, on the otherhand means "the I am, or the existing one."
Exodus 6.3: kai wfqhn pros abraam kai isaak kai iakwb qeos wn autwn kai to onoma mou kurios ouk edhlwsa autois. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- the second one should be starting to look familiar. it's kurios, or "lord." in hebrew, "adonai." why would educated hebrew linguists and rabbis render "YaHoWaH" as "kurios" in greek, instead of "iahowah" or even "iaweh?" because you weren't meant to read the consonants, JUST the vowels, and remember to say "adonai" or "kurios" in greek. But kurios is a completely different word. You are reading consonants in it. You are including the consonants of the Hebrew word, adonai. You are not tranlating YHWH. You are changing the Hebrew text to a completely different word. The Old 1901 American Standard version does not fall for this, but translates the 600 or so times the name exists in the manuscripts properly to say Jehovah in contemporary English.
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
the septuagint is a static document. it's the greek translation that 72 rabbis conducted (in alexandria, i believe) from about 300-200 bc. we HAVE these documents: they are the oldest text of the bible that we do in fact have. the only difference in the septuagint today is that it's 2000 years older now. it's not like someone went back in 1941 with a bottle of white out and replaced all of the yahweh references with kurios. It was the 300 to 200 bc revisionists who were more likely to have gotten into the white out and replaced all of the Yaweh references with kurios/adonai. These were the superstitious ones who took it upon themselves to remove those 600 or so references to YHWH/Yahweh which were in the older Hebrew manuscripts and add kurios in place of, in the Septuagint.
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
you're grossly misunderstanding me. that's not a rebuttal to my point, or a correction: it IS my point. the people who translated the septuagint translated the name of god as "kurios" or lord, and this is the reason most modern translations have the word LORD in all caps as the name of god. When you posted the following statement, you missunderstood me, in that my post was in reference to translators who did translate YHWH rather than change the wording. There are a few places in the KJV and other prominent translations where "Jehovah" is literally translated, such as Exodus 6:3, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, and Isaiah 26:4.
uh, no. most translators today would NOT support your argument. it's simply not translated that way any more. it's well know to anyone even the slightest bit versed in hebrew that the name "YHWH" is rendered with the vowels of adonai, so the reader says "adonai" and not "yahweh." no person the slightest bit educated in hebrew would EVER read this as the combination of the two words. ........And here (below) you totally confused me. It appeared here that you were refuting my usage of "Yahweh," and thatI did so by using incorrect vowels and adding a sylable.
jacob is yah-ahk-obe. it's not that different. we've lost a syllable, and pronounce the vowels a little differently. but jehovah os yah-weh. here we're adding a syllable, and completrely changing the word by using the incorrect vowels. Then here below, I took it that you are arguing for "adonai" as the correct translation.
the second one should be starting to look familiar. it's kurios, or "lord." in hebrew, "adonai." why would educated hebrew linguists and rabbis render "YaHoWaH" as "kurios" in greek, instead of "iahowah" or even "iaweh?" because you weren't meant to read the consonants, JUST the vowels, and remember to say "adonai" or "kurios" in greek. six THOUSAND some references, yes. Right. Thanks. I stand corrected.
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
yet ask any religious orthodox jew to say the name of god outside of a classroom, and they will say "hashem" or "adonai" and not "yahweh" and certainly not "jehovah" ask most christians the name of god, and they won't say "jehovah" either. kurios, don't you think? You're very right, Archy. And why is this so? 1. The still superstitious orthocox Jews still consider it a bad omen to speak God's proper name. 2. Most Christians haven't a clue. Because the translators got by with altering God's words, they have had his proper name programmed out of their vocabulary. This erroneous stuff is coming home to roost nowadays with the revival of the occult, paganism, Hinduism and Buddhism, Islam and red man's Great Spirit, etc . Now when ones mentions, "god" or "lord," it can mean one of several prominant gods.
you're missing the point. "YaHoWaH" was never meant to be translated. it's a combination of two words, the consonants of "Yahweh" and the vowels of "adonai." you have to render one or the other, but not both. i'm arguing for the MORE CURRENT and correct rendering of "LORD" because it upholds the way a religious jew would read the hebrew text: only the vowels. It was evidently meant to be translated until the superstitious Septuagint revisionists took it upon themselves to change it. That the majority ignorantly or superstitiously follow the incorrect translation, does not mean Jehovah, the Biblical god approves of the gross ignorance of his name because of the changes most translators took it upon themselves to make. THERE IS NO SCRIPTURE FORBIDDING MEN TO SPEAK OR WRITE GOD'S NAME. If he didn't want it spoken or written, he wouldn't have had the inspired writers to use it some 6000 times.
my argument is essentially that this the current practice in translation, but nothing new. it's older than jesus. the 1901 translation was not aware of this practice, or the reason for adding the vowel points of "adonai" to "yahweh," and so INCORRECTLY transliterated it as "jehovah." So you're not supporting my position at all. It's only older than Jesus because of groundless superstition of the Jews during a time of spiritual decline in their history, and because of that, translators of the OT have played their game for a long time to the chagrin of the almighty god, Jehovah, the supreme creator of the universe. He has declared in his word that NOTHING WAS EVER TO BE ADDED OR REMOVED FROM HIS WORDS.
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
There is no reason why the NT writers would not have used the Name when quoting from the Greek Septuagint OT. Plus we also know that Matthew first wrote his gospel in Hebrew, so he certainly used the Tetragrammaton. This is why a number of Bible translations have Jehovah in the NT verses which are quotes from the OT where the Tetragrammaton appeared; it belongs there. I wish one of those older manuscripts of the NT with the divine Name still intact would turn up, so that it would be possible to restore the Name to all the places the original writers used it, not just the places where they quoted from the OT. LOL. The name was never intended to be in the NT. Why? Because Jesus, for the first time in history taught that God should be addressed as "Father." Why? Because being "born from above/born again" makes one a child of God. In both the Lord's Prayer and the gospel of John, Jesus taught to pray "to the Father," praying in his name. In the Lord's Prayer he said, "When you pray, say, 'Our Father.....' One does not call one's father by his name, even in our human lives.
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
perhaps translators wished to give respect to the name by writing LORD in it's place since you know... names don't translate very well Changing what was given from God for the text would not, imo, show respect to God. The result has been that many are ignorant of God's proper name. To so many he's just this generic supreme being up in the sky. That's a shame, like the unknown god of ancient Greece. I am not aware that names don't translate well. What language would it be impossible to translate Yahweh into?
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
those are the letters. so what do their included vowel sounds say? yo-hey-va-hey (short 'a' and don't pronounce the y on the 'hey' plz kthxbye) Methinks your Hebrew phonetics is flawed. The nearest phonetic vowel sounds of YHWH comes out to be YAHWEH. You would not pronounciate the last two y's and the v. I believe they would be silent, would they not?
yo. that doesn't sound like je to me. so um. until further notice, i think you're all nuts. It's not suppose to sound like JE until you get it into modern English. Have you been reading the thread?
if you're christian, he says to call him daddy. if you're jewish, you're not to say it at all. if you're atheist, you think he's fake. Again, have you been reading, or must it all be repeated just for you? There's valid sensible reasons for this stuff. That you're too lazy to think doesn't make someone else nuts.
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
it was a joke (or at least mostly). I saw no winkey eye or anything in the post to indicate joke or jest. If you're joking so indicate so we can laugh, reply accordingly or simply shrug the shoulder and move on.
and now you're calling me stupid because you can't get a joke. well i guess we know now who's stupid. Where did I say you are stupid? Please document.
who are you to claim to control him with a name? Say what? How do you construe my comments as claiming to control God by stating facts about his name??
btw. people on this board really need to lighten up. happy solstice everyone. Tell a joke or something humorous and maybe you will get a happy rise. Discussion of the name of the almighty is not a light funny subject. If you want that, there's the coffeeshop.
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
i thought you were on the other side? My comments pertained to the Hebrew phonetics of the name, not the contemporary English. I believe I made that clear if you read me correctly.
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
iam doesn't sound like a very good name for a god. It's not the name of a god. It's the meaning of the name of the Biblical god, Jehovah, the "I am" or the "existing one."
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Buzsaw Inactive Member |
DTS writes: Nonsense. The custom of whether or not to call one's father by his given name varies from culture to culture. It has nothing to do with religion or respect for God. Nonsense? Are you aware as to whether OT and NT Jews addressed their fathers at home by their sirnames/proper names? I doubt that they did. BUZSAW B 4 U 2 C Y BUZ SAW
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