I would like to know more about this.
For one thing was like the slavery we know today?
Or was it more like the NIV interpretation:
Exodus 21
7 "If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as menservants do
They use the word servant.
AMP bible
Exodus 21
7If a man sells his daughter to be a maidservant or bondwoman, she shall not go out [in six years] as menservants do.
KJV
Exodus 21
7 And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do.
ESV
Exodus 21
7"When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she shall not go out as the male slaves do.
3 out of those 4 choose not to use the word slave.
When rhain tries to describe it, he wants to invoke anger in people against the bible by using the word slave. When that word, or the descripition of what was going on back then is much different than what is going on today. I know this because of the fact that he brings it up.