Is the bible authoritive and truly inspired?

Im taking a course in biblical hebrew at present and my workbook states that the original form of writing was the proto-canaanite hieroglyphics which dates back to 1500BCEfrom 950BCE an alphabetic text was being used and when you compare it to the hieroglyphics, to the alphabet, there is a clear resemblance between them. there is also a clear resemblance (even more so) of the hebrew to the classical greek alphabet.but i will ask my teacher that to get a definite answer because im not 100% sure.

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The pentateuch was accepted as an inspired word right from the time it was given to the nation after they left egypt. It was the foundation of the jewish religion. It provided the means of worship, set out the requirements, stipulated how the sacrifices were to be given and why ...Judaism itself rests on the books of the pentateuch

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No they didn't or they wouldn't have lost them for them to be found later.

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all other bible writers witness to the fact that the Pentateuch was Gods law given through the hand of Moses and all the requirments of Judaism was found in it. (Joshua 1:7 Judges 3:4 2Kings 18:6 Malachi 4:4)
Such men as David (1Ki 2:1-3), Daniel (9:11), Ezra (6:18), Nehemiah (8:1), Jesus (Mark 12:26 Luke 16:29 John 7:19), Luke 24:27), and John (1:17) make references to this work as that of Moses and handed to him by God himself. Jesus himself acknowledged that Moses was the writer (Mark 10:3-5 John 5:46-47)

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These don't support the authorship of Genesis.

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It was always accepted by the Jews as the inspired word of God. Genesis lists the events from the creation of man to the death of Jacob in Egypt in 1657 BCE

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Exodus records the events to do with their deliverance and the inauguration of the Law Convenent and of the construction of the Tabernacle from 1657 to 1512 BCE

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Leviticus give information about the Levitical priesthood and the requirements of worship

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Numbers records the 40year wilderness trek down to 1473 BCE

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and Deuteronomy provides Moses final instructions to the new generation of Isrealites where were about to cross over into the promised land.

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The jews never questioned these books because they were with moses when he was writing them.

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Show evidence that it was before Rabbinic Judaism became the norm. I've already given evidence that all Jews did not believe the laws of Moses were that old.

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every book of the bible contains prophecy, not just some...they all do.

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You're contradicting yourself again and your're stalling. In Message 42 you stated: So prophecies are sprinkled throughout the writings. Not everything is prophecy. .Please address your position concerning the Jewish Canon that fulfilled prophecies are a prerequisite for canonization. That is what you need to provide support for since according to Christians all prophecies had not been fulfilled by 200BCE.

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What it does is show that the scribes who were making copies of the Pentacheut were keeping it up to date. Its similar today. As words in our language change, so do they change those words in newer translations.... im sure you've read a king james version of the bible for instance, The old english they used back then is not longer used by us so they make new versions in the language we understand.

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Well that's absurd. Any scribe worth his weight in salt would annotate the change so that readers would know the original name of the town and the current name of the town.

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I believe this is what the scribes may have been doing in the case of the city of Dan. Of course there are no original scriptures written by Moses own hand today, that would be impossible. But the scribes who made copies of Moses original did make these sorts of changes as the need arose.

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Evidence please. I don't want your own brand of fiction.ABE: The authors of the first five books do not claim that Moses wrote those finished books not do they try to hide the fact that Moses didn't write the first five books. Later people attributed them to Moses and later people are the ones who do the gymnastics necessary to maintain Moses as the author.Another example: Deuteronomy 1:1. This perspective is from someone who had already crossed the Jordan, which Moses didn't.Edited by purpledawn, : ABE

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"Peshat is what I say and derash is what you say." --Nehama Leibowitz

So even if the bible was authoritative and truly inspired at one time it has been altered by humans. Therefore, we can not truly tell what is the original word of god. Ok I am with you on this. Now show me an earlier text(which you claim must have existed) that shows that originally had Laish instead of Dan. If you cannnot all you are doing is trying to make some sort of reality fit your beliefs. Nothing more.

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Facts don't lie or have an agenda. Facts are just facts

you are right in one way, the nation as a whole had stopped following Gods law and because of that God allowed them to be taken into captivity by Babylon, the temple was destroyed and all the valuables were taken by the babylonians in 607 BCE.So didnt really loose the book of the law of Moses. After 70 years of captivity in Babylon, Cyrus of Persia released the jews and they returned to Jerusalem to rebuild the temple...this is when one of the priests found the original book of the Law written by Moses. Rabbinic Judaism didnt begin until after the temple was destroyed by the Romans in 70CE.

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Wiki states] : Rabbinic Judaism or Rabbinism (Hebrew: "Yehadut Rabanit" - ‘) has been the mainstream form of Judaism since the codification of the Talmud in the centuries following the destruction of the Second Temple in 70 CE by the Roman Empire.

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Judaism before this was the realm of the Levitical priesthood aka the Saducees. When the temple was destroyed in 70CE the priesthood ceased to exist and the Pharisees took over the reigns...they are Rabbinic Judaism. the Pentateuch lists the laws...are they prophecies?
The books of Kings and Chronicles documents various wars...are they prophecies?
The Psalms contain songs of praise...are they prophecies?
the book of Numbers gives the family lines that came out of Egypt...are these prophecies?no they are not, yet those same books contain prophecies. When Moses told the Isrealites that God would give them a land flowing with milk and honey, that was a prophecy...after they finally entered that land, any doubts about that particular prophecy were laid to rest because of its fulfillment. After 40 years of following Moses, when they finally reached the promised land, no one doubted Moses words...the nation kept following Moses predecessor and continued to participate in the form or worship set out in the Mosaic law. If they did not believe Moses, then the temple would never have been built and the priesthood would have ended. what makes you think they didnt make annotations?While its true that the scribes or sopherim made changes in the text, their successors, the Masoretes, were able to restore the changes that the sopherim made, because the seraphim did make annotations. yes, and if you read his words carefully, then from his perspective Moses would have been beyond the Jordan and 'In The Wilderness''beyond the Jordon' obviously implying the area 'beyond' the jordon in the 'wilderness'

the scriptures found in the Dead Sea Scrolls have proved beyond all doubt that the bible we have to day is almost identical to what was written thousands of years ago.

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Judges 18:29Furthermore, they called the name of the city Dan by the name of their father, Dan, who had been born to Israel. Nevertheless, La”ish was the city’s name at first

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how did the bible writer know that the city's original name was Laish? The writer obviously did know this, otherwise he would have written it as the city of Dan and not identified its original name.

Ok so now you are saying Judges was written before Genesis? Looks like we may be getting somewhere.I think you have tortured your logic into a corner.

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Facts don't lie or have an agenda. Facts are just facts

You really don't want to address the issues you create with your fiction or show evidence to support your brand of fiction. Please show real world evidence that this statement is true. I've already shown that it isn't. Show evidence that the Jews never questioned these books before the common era. Stop being dense.Please address your position concerning the Jewish Canon that fulfilled prophecies are a prerequisite for canonization. That is what you need to provide support for since according to Christians all prophecies had not been fulfilled by 200BCE. Outlined in Message 43.

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what makes you think they didnt make annotations?

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While its true that the scribes or sopherim made changes in the text, their successors, the Masoretes, were able to restore the changes that the sopherim made, because the seraphim did make annotations.

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Great, so the Masoretes corrected the updated text back to its original if there were changes. So it says Dan. That still means Moses is not the author of Genesis. Message 43

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yes, and if you read his words carefully, then from his perspective Moses would have been beyond the Jordan and 'In The Wilderness'

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'beyond the Jordon' obviously implying the area 'beyond' the jordon in the 'wilderness'

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Repeating the words won't change the meaning. Beyond the Jordan means across the Jordan River. The perspective is from someone who had already crossed over the river. Moses had not crossed.You need to address the reality behind the making of the book.

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"Peshat is what I say and derash is what you say." --Nehama Leibowitz

sometimes i do that yes, but in this case not really...well not yet anyway lolIm not saying that genesis was written after judges. if the writer of judges was able to make a distinction between what its name was at the time, and what it used to be, and the fact that he included both names in his writing, why couldnt Moses do the same.for instance, in the account Ge 14:14 there is nothing to argue against the existence of this name, Dan, as applying to the indicated area in the time of Abraham. And when the name appears at Deuteronomy 34:1, Moses sees the area in his final view of the Promised Land from his position on Mount Nebo and calls it Dan. So if Moses wrote the account of Abraham and called the city Dan, even if in Abrahams day it was called something else, he could have done so because thats what it was known as at the time.unless im missing something else???

Do you even think of what you write? You are no longer making any sense.Judges 18:27-29

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Then they took what Micah had made and the priest who had belonged to him, and came to (A)Laish, to a people quiet and secure, and struck them with the edge of the sword; and they burned the city with fire.

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And there was no one to deliver them, because it was far from Sidon and they had no dealings with anyone, and it was in the valley which is near Beth-rehob. And they rebuilt the city and lived in it.

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(They called the name of the city Dan, after the name of Dan their father who was born in Israel; however, the name of the city formerly was Laish.

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This account is placed in the bible right after the death of Samson. According to the chronology in the bible Samson was around 400 years after Moses.Now look at this.Genesis 14:14

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When Abram heard that his relative was taken captive, he led forth his trained men, born in his house, 318, and pursued as far as Dan.

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Are you saying Moses wrote about something that was going to happen 200-400 years in the future?

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Facts don't lie or have an agenda. Facts are just facts

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unless im missing something else???

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Yes you are.Just like he didn't write the first verse in Deuteronomy, Moses didn't write Chapter 34. It's about his death. "To this day" means it was written at a later date just like the "beyond the Jordan". These were written after the people had crossed the river, after the people knew the new names of the territories.
Read the thread: Could Moses Have Written the First Five Books of the Bible?Read what the text is saying and not what tradition has told you. How can you claim a book is Holy and has authority when you don't even respect what it is actually saying? You follow the traditions of man, not what was written.You supposedly accept a canon as authoritative, but you don't know the criteria used to determine the manuscripts authenticity.You haven't shown that you even understand what the writers of the Bible are saying to their audiences, let alone who they were or whether they were truly inspired or had authority to write what they wrote.Pay attention to what we're saying and asking and find evidence from reality, not your imagination, that addresses those questions.Edited by purpledawn, : Added Link to old Moses thread.

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"Peshat is what I say and derash is what you say." --Nehama Leibowitz

How does Moses know about Ur of The Chaldees when the Chaldees(Chaldeans) didn't occupy Ur until at least the 8th Century BCE, over 500 years after Moses death.Edited by bluescat48, : missing /

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There is no better love between 2 people than mutual respect for each other WT Young, 2002Who gave anyone the authority to call me an authority on anything. WT Young, 1969Since Evolution is only ~90% correct it should be thrown out and replaced by Creation which has even a lower % of correctness. W T Young, 2008

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How does Moses know about Ur of The Chaldees when the Chaldees(Chaldeans) didn't occupy Ur until at least the 8th Century BCE, over 500 years after Moses death.

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Good grief, man, God told him!Of course those who take that route forget that the people who supposedly would have listened to this story from Moses, would have been giving him the deer in the headlight look because they didn't know what a Chaldean was, they didn't know where the city of Dan was, they would have wondered what sceptre he was talking about in Genesis 49:10 or what house of the Lord in Exodus 23:19. They would have wondered why Moses didn't know what to do when they found a man gathering sticks on the Sabbath in Numbers 15:33-34 when God had clearly told him in Exodus 31:15 that the man should be put to death or why Moses kept talking like they had already crossed the Jordan in Numbers 15:32 or Deuteronomy 1 and 34.They forget that writers write for a specific audience. I think his audience would have been very confused.

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"Peshat is what I say and derash is what you say." --Nehama Leibowitz

I know what you are saying, but it could simply be a coincidence that the land mentioned in the account about Abram was also called Danit very well 'may' have been recorded that way becuase it was prophetic of the future

i dont deny that at all...actually if you look at Joshua chpt 1, you'll see that it takes off right where that book ends.Also, considering Moses was 120yrs of age and on his deathbed, its very likely that Joshuah (Moses minister) penned the whole book under dictation from Moses. thats because im not a good debater...however I enjoy the challenge of it and the fact that it forces me to do research

im not sure what you mean by thatSir Leonard Woolley is an archeologist who made excavations there and dated the site to be around 1943BCE.thats over 300 years before Moses was born.