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Author Topic:   Define literal vs non-literal.
hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4546 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 149 of 271 (550999)
03-20-2010 8:23 AM
Reply to: Message 146 by kbertsche
03-20-2010 1:56 AM


Re: Sentence Determines
ICR writes:
When ordinals or the phrase "evening and morning" are connected with yom, it always means a solar day. The context of the six days of creation account in Genesis 1 precludes any meaning of indefinite time.
KB writes:
Again, the ICR claims are much too dogmatic. I guess the author never read Dan 8:26, Hos 6:2, or Zech 14:7??
I guess you ignored their points. Not one of those examples follows what I, or that ICR has stated. You're creating strawmen. Dan states the plural, not singular. Hos is an idiom and Zech doesnt even use evening and morning.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 146 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 1:56 AM kbertsche has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 155 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 10:52 AM hERICtic has not replied

hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4546 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 151 of 271 (551002)
03-20-2010 8:31 AM
Reply to: Message 145 by kbertsche
03-20-2010 1:33 AM


Re: Biblical absurdities
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I know YOM is Hebrew. It means "day". I'm not sure what you are trying to imply here.
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KB writes:
You had insisted in your "rule" that a "number precedes YOM." I was simply trying to point out the sloppiness and changing definitions of your rules.
In the Hebrew Bible, numbers do NOT precede "yom." Numbers come AFTER "yom," not BEFORE "yom."
Grammatical rules must be stated very clearly and precisely and carefully if they are to have any value as rules. Your rules are very imprecisely worded, and they change every time you state them. Hence they are not very useful to you or to anyone else.
I explained this already, but I'm assuming you missed it. I was using ONE English translation. In that translation, every time a number was before YOM, it refered to a 24 hour day. You pointed out a number follows YOM, does not precede it, IN MOST CASES. So I did what you mentioned. The result is the exact same. When a number is used with YOM, it ALWAYS refers to a 24 hour period. Regardless if its precedes it or comes after it.
I also have brought this up a few times. If science tomorrow states the earth was created in 6 days, you and Peg would jump all over it. You'd abandon your stance that it refers to billions of years in a second. If I mentioned 200 years ago that it refers to billions of years, you'd argue tooth and nail it does not, that the Bible is quite clear. Christians argue that it means billions of years bc the evidence is too overwhelming. It has nothing to do with the actual scripture. The context of the story states its 24 hours, per day.
Evening and morning, day one. How much more clear can one get? Exodus, states 6 days.
There are words for long periods of time, not once were they used.
You want to believe god is not the author of confusion. So when one reads Exodus, does it mean 24 hours, a week, a month, a year, a thousand years, a few thousands, a million, a billion? Gets confusing doesn't it?
Not if it means a week. There isnt any indication the author of Genesis and Exodus meant anything other than a 24 hour period. Nothing.
There isnt any evidence in scripture to support that belief. None.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 145 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 1:33 AM kbertsche has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 156 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 11:15 AM hERICtic has not replied

hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4546 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 153 of 271 (551005)
03-20-2010 8:39 AM
Reply to: Message 143 by kbertsche
03-20-2010 12:40 AM


Re: Biblical absurdities
quote:
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But the crux of my entire argument is that when evening AND mornig are used, its always a 24 hour day. Nowhere does this verse state "morning". I am comparing what Genesis states (evening and morning) to where that terminology is used elsewhere in scripture.
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KB writes:
If that is your argument, it's quite weak. Outside of Genesis 1 (the passage in question), there are only three verses in the OT that contain all of the words "day" (singular), "evening," and "morning:"
NET Bible writes:
Lev. 6:20 This is the offering of Aaron and his sons which they must present to the LORD on the day when he is anointed: a tenth of an ephah of choice wheat flour as a continual grain offering, half of it in the morning and half of it in the evening.
Num. 9:15 On the day that the tabernacle was set up, the cloud covered the tabernacle—the tent of the testimony—and from evening until morning there was a fiery appearance over the tabernacle.
Deut. 16:4 There must not be a scrap of yeast within your land for seven days, nor can any of the meat you sacrifice on the evening of the first day remain until the next morning.
This is ANOTHER strawman. You quote me, in which I state when "evening and morning" are used it always means a 24 hour period. Then you change it as if I said "evening, morning and day" are used together. You then uses scripture thats states "eveningS and morningS". Of course its plural and means long periods of time! Sheesh!
There are many verses where "evening and morning" are used, ALL refer to a 24 hour period. Here are a few examples, in order:
Exodus 16:8
Moses also said, "You will know that it was the LORD when he gives you meat to eat in the evening and all the bread you want in the morning, because he has heard your grumbling against him. Who are we? You are not grumbling against us, but against the LORD."
Exodus 16:7-9 (in Context) Exodus 16 (Whole Chapter)
Exodus 16:13
That evening quail came and covered the camp, and in the morning there was a layer of dew around the camp.
Exodus 16:12-14 (in Context) Exodus 16 (Whole Chapter)
Exodus 18:13
The next day Moses took his seat to serve as judge for the people, and they stood around him from morning till evening.
Exodus 18:12-14 (in Context) Exodus 18 (Whole Chapter)
Exodus 18:14
When his father-in-law saw all that Moses was doing for the people, he said, "What is this you are doing for the people? Why do you alone sit as judge, while all these people stand around you from morning till evening?"
Exodus 18:13-15 (in Context) Exodus 18 (Whole Chapter)
Exodus 27:21
In the Tent of Meeting, outside the curtain that is in front of the Testimony, Aaron and his sons are to keep the lamps burning before the LORD from evening till morning. This is to be a lasting ordinance among the Israelites for the generations to come.
Exodus 27:20-21 (in Context) Exodus 27 (Whole Chapter)
There are many, many more. Each refers to a 24 hour period.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 143 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 12:40 AM kbertsche has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 157 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 11:20 AM hERICtic has replied

hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4546 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 159 of 271 (551032)
03-20-2010 12:03 PM
Reply to: Message 154 by kbertsche
03-20-2010 10:42 AM


Re: Biblical absurdities
quote:
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Zech 14:7 does not refer to a long period of time. Second, it does not contain "evening or morning". You're making a strawman here.
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KB writes:
It contains "yom echad" ("one day") and DOES contain the word "evening." It is very clearly not a "normal day."
I'm not sure if I'm not explaing myself correctly (possible) or you're just not understanding.
It matters not if it contains "evening". I said when "evening and morning' are used. Yes, it does say "one day", but it refers to a day in the future.
quote:
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About time you got to this one! But you're misunderstanding it. Its an idiom alright, but the the days represents a 24 hour period for each. If "day" meant a long period of time, it would contradict the prophecy.
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KB writes:
Again, I never said that "day" meant "a long period of time." (I suspect you're following some sort of crib sheet for YECs to argue against the Day-Age view.) Day is figurative/metaphorical here, as part of an idiom.
Ok...you lost me. I have the stance that the day in Genesis refers to a 24 hour day. You're stance, is that its not a 24 hour day. Unless I have mixed up your argument and Pegs (who states its a million or billion), I thought your stance regarding the "day" in Genesis is also the same. Our entire debate so far, as far as I can tell, is based upon the Genesis account of what a "day" is.
I have stated that anytime a day is used with "evening" or "morning" it refers to 24 hours. You pointed out the above scripture shows that I was incorrect. I'm not. Its an idiom, still refering to a 24 hour day.
quote:
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In other words, a comparison is being made between how long gods anger was to be/restorie Israel and a "day". The prophecy collapses if if "day" meant anything other than a 24 hour day.
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KB writes:
No. The days are figurative here. Do you really know Hebrew better than all of the (conservative) translators and commentators that I listed?
They're agreeing with me! Its an idiom! In other words, yes, its figurative, BUT its comparing the short amount of time of the prophecy to a solar day. If the days in question were long periods of time, it would contradict the scripture.
Here, from the information you gave:
NET translator's note writes:
tn Heb after two days (so KJV, NIV, NRSV). The expression after two days is an idiom meaning after a short time (see, e.g., Judg 11:4; BDB 399 s.v. MOwy 5.a).
tn Heb on the third day (so NASB, NIV, NRSV), which parallels after two days and means in a little while. The 2—3 sequence is an example of graded numerical parallelism (Prov 30:15—16, 18—19, 21—23, 24—28, 29—31). This expresses the unrepentant overconfidence of Israel that the LORD’s discipline of Israel would be relatively short and that he would restore them quickly.
Notice numerical parallelsim? Its comparing a solar day to the prophecy.
quote:
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PS 18:2 The LORD is my rock... This is an idiom. God is not really a "rock', but unless you're using the terminlogy of what a rock really is, the verse makes no sense.
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KB writes:
This seems strained. You admit that it is an idiom, and that the word is not used in a literal sense. But you want to retain some sort of literal meaning for the word in an obviously figurative usage??
But even so, if you apply your logic of Ps 18:2 to the "days" in Genesis 1, you're consistent with what I've been saying. The "days" could be figurative, undefined, indeterminate periods, but are invoking the imagery of a "normal day."
You're not understanding what an idiom is.
3 days, prophecy. The prophecy is not a 3 day prophecy, so its not literally 3 days. BUT.....you have to understand, its comparing the prophecy to 3 solar days. By understanding that its an idiom, it shows that the prophecy is to be a short amount of time.
The lord is my rock. Lord compared to a rock. The lord is not actually a stone, but by understanding what a stone is, it explains what the lord is.
quote:
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Bottom line, "day" still means 24 hours.
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KB writes:
Maybe in your mind. You seem to be WAY too committed to an ad-hoc, poorly defined "rule" of Hebrew that appears in no major Hebrew language textbook.
I am not commited to any rule. In fact, PD has explained in detail to Peg regarding the Hebrew. I simply pointed out, using context, Genesis refers to 24 hours. I also pointed out, by example that anytime "evening" and "morning" are used in scripture it refers to 24 hours. I also pointed out anytime "day" is used with a number, it refers to 24 hours. I also pointed out there are words for long periods of time, none are used in Genesis or Exodus regarding the creation. You have yet to give a single example that contradicts this. Yes, you can find sites that show the Hebrew COULD have meant long periods of time, just as I have sites that show it could NOT have meant long periods of time. We can go back and forth on this topic. But just bc it "can" mean a long period of time, does not mean it should be read that way. Hence why I focused more on the context of how the words is used.
After all this debate, my points stand.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 154 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 10:42 AM kbertsche has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 161 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 1:30 PM hERICtic has replied

hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4546 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 160 of 271 (551033)
03-20-2010 12:32 PM
Reply to: Message 157 by kbertsche
03-20-2010 11:20 AM


Re: Biblical absurdities
ote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
This is ANOTHER strawman. You quote me, in which I state when "evening and morning" are used it always means a 24 hour period. Then you change it as if I said "evening, morning and day" are used together. You then uses scripture thats states "eveningS and morningS". Of course its plural and means long periods of time! Sheesh!
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
KB writes:
Sorry--Not a strawman, but a miscommunication. I thought you were still speaking of your ad-hoc rule that involved "day" with "evening" and "morning." (The rule that you first mentioned as "day" with "evening/morning" and then changed to "day" with "evening" AND "morning.")
Ok, gotcha. My bad at first. I tend to rush my posts due to limited time and I make quite a few mistakes. So my apologies for the initial confusion.
quote:
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I explained this already, but I'm assuming you missed it. I was using ONE English translation. In that translation, every time a number was before YOM, it refered to a 24 hour day. You pointed out a number follows YOM, does not precede it, IN MOST CASES. So I did what you mentioned. The result is the exact same. When a number is used with YOM, it ALWAYS refers to a 24 hour period. Regardless if its precedes it or comes after it.
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KB writes:
No, you missed MY point. Your English translation does not use "yom." It uses "day."
But "day" is "yom".
KB writes:
When one talks about an English translation they should say "number before DAY." When one talks about a Hebrew translation they should say "number after YOM." When you speak of a "number before YOM" your use of "YOM" implies that you are speaking of the Hebrew. If you are referring to English, it would be much clearer if you used the word "day."
Ok, gotcha.
quote:
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I also have brought this up a few times. If science tomorrow states the earth was created in 6 days, you and Peg would jump all over it. You'd abandon your stance that it refers to billions of years in a second. If I mentioned 200 years ago that it refers to billions of years, you'd argue tooth and nail it does not, that the Bible is quite clear. Christians argue that it means billions of years bc the evidence is too overwhelming. It has nothing to do with the actual scripture. The context of the story states its 24 hours, per day.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
KB writes:
Don't confuse my position with Peg's. As I have stated repeatedly, I am not arguing for long periods of time or a day-age view in this thread! (Please re-read that sentence until you understand it.) I am NOT trying to force Genesis 1 to be consistent with modern science. I am trying to interpret Genesis 1 in its own literary-historical-cultural context, on its own, with no reference to modern science. My approach is very similar to PurpleDawn's in this respect.
I have not read all of PD's responses, but isn't her stance that the authors were using solar days in respect to a actual days? So what exactly is your opinion then? Does the author refers to a 24 hour day or longer? If its longer, arent we then having the same debate? If yes, then I still believe the only reason you're taking a stance against a literal day is due to what science has brought to the table.
quote:
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There isnt any indication the author of Genesis and Exodus meant anything other than a 24 hour period. Nothing.
There isnt any evidence in scripture to support that belief. None.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
KB writes:
There are many, many conservative Evangelical Hebrew and Old Testament scholars who say otherwise. I guess you know better than all of them.
I could easily take the stance that there are many scholars who say otherwise. I bet most of your scholars come from the 20th century though. I wonder why that is? Again, there isnt any defintive evidence if its a long period of time or an actual 24 hour day based upon the wording. But again, why not use a word that implies long periods of time if that is what is meant? Why use the terminology, which completely gives the impression of a solar day, evening and morning, day one?
Out of curiosity, can you show me a few scholars, who are not Christians, who state that without a doubt, its not literal days?
Since you obviously have more information at your disposal (I have a few sites) I decided to dig around. I found this:
The following is an extract from a letter written in 1984 by Professor James Barr, who was at the time Regius Professor of Hebrew at the University of Oxford. Please note that Professor Barr does not claim to believe that Genesis is literally true, he is just telling us, openly and honestly, what the language means.
Professor Barr said,
Probably, so far as I know, there is no professor of Hebrew or Old Testament at any world-class university who does not believe that the writer(s) of Gen. 1-11 intended to convey to their readers the ideas that (a) creation took place in a series of six days which were the same as the days of 24 hours we now experience There are many theologians (as opposed to Hebrew language experts) who insist on long days, for example...............
.................There are many theologians (as opposed to Hebrew language experts) who insist on long days, for example.
Six Days? - Honestly! - ChristianAnswers.Net
Edited by hERICtic, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 157 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 11:20 AM kbertsche has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 162 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 2:06 PM hERICtic has not replied

hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4546 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 163 of 271 (551065)
03-20-2010 3:11 PM
Reply to: Message 161 by kbertsche
03-20-2010 1:30 PM


Re: Biblical absurdities
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I'm not sure if I'm not explaing myself correctly (possible) or you're just not understanding.
It matters not if it contains "evening". I said when "evening and morning' are used. Yes, it does say "one day", but it refers to a day in the future.
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KB writes:
Again, if you only want to look at verses with "day" and the phrase "evening and morning," all in the singular, you have restricted yourself to Genesis 1. So this provides no help in interpreting Genesis 1.
I really have no idea what you are refering to. I already stated, using Hebrew (which I used after you stated I should not use an English version)
states the exact same thing.
If you have evidence to the contrary, please show me.
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quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Again, I never said that "day" meant "a long period of time." (I suspect you're following some sort of crib sheet for YECs to argue against the Day-Age view.) Day is figurative/metaphorical here, as part of an idiom.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ok...you lost me. I have the stance that the day in Genesis refers to a 24 hour day. You're stance, is that its not a 24 hour day. Unless I have mixed up your argument and Pegs (who states its a million or billion), I thought your stance regarding the "day" in Genesis is also the same. Our entire debate so far, as far as I can tell, is based upon the Genesis account of what a "day" is.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
KB writes:
Yes, you are probably mixing up my argument and Peg's. Please look back at my posts in this thread. You will see that I argue from the text (not from modern science) for indefinite/indeterminate lengths for the first three "Days." I argue against definiteness for these days, whether one insists on 24 hours or on a long period of time.
Then I'm not mixing up anything. I am debating you on the lenght of those days. You're saying its not definitive, I'm taking the side that they are.
Based upon the evidence you've thrown out, you have offered nothing to support your assertions.
quote:
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No. The days are figurative here. Do you really know Hebrew better than all of the (conservative) translators and commentators that I listed?
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They're agreeing with me! Its an idiom! In other words, yes, its figurative, BUT its comparing the short amount of time of the prophecy to a solar day. If the days in question were long periods of time, it would contradict the scripture.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
KB writes:
Then perhaps we are all in violent agreement on this point.
Uh oh, I think violence is prohibited here.
quote:
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3 days, prophecy. The prophecy is not a 3 day prophecy, so its not literally 3 days. BUT.....you have to understand, its comparing the prophecy to 3 solar days. By understanding that its an idiom, it shows that the prophecy is to be a short amount of time.
The lord is my rock. Lord compared to a rock. The lord is not actually a stone, but by understanding what a stone is, it explains what the lord is.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
KB writes:
On this we agree. Now apply this to Genesis 1. The first three days are not literal, 24-hour days but are of indefinite, indeterminate length. But they are compared and likened to a normal "day."
But its not an idiom in Genesis. Thats the point.
KB writes:
Please look back at my posts to see my opinion. PD makes a good, reasoned case that the "days" in Gen 1 are all normal 24-hour "days." I can almost agree with them being "normal" days, but I'm uncomfortable with adding "24-hours"--this adds to the text. My main quibble is that one purpose of the light-bearers on Day 4 was to "indicate days" (Gen 1:14). Thus the text implies that the first 3 days were not well-indicated, so their length is not well-defined in the text. To insist that they are either 24-hour days or that they are long periods of time does violence to the text. Either one misses the textual implication that the days needed something to define their length, and that this was not provided until Day 4.
I believe the textual implication is quite clear. A normal solar day. I use 24 hours, bc thats what a day is. Maybe it was slightly different 6 thousand years ago, but we are still refering to a solar day.
quote:
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There are many, many conservative Evangelical Hebrew and Old Testament scholars who say otherwise. I guess you know better than all of them.
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I could easily take the stance that there are many scholars who say otherwise. I bet most of your scholars come from the 20th century though. I wonder why that is? Again, there isnt any defintive evidence if its a long period of time or an actual 24 hour day based upon the wording. But again, why not use a word that implies long periods of time if that is what is meant? Why use the terminology, which completely gives the impression of a solar day, evening and morning, day one?
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KB writes:
Again, I'm not arguing for long periods of time. My disagreement with you is not so much your position on the meaning of "day" in Genesis, but your dogmatism about your position and your insistence on buttressing it with ad-hoc "rules" of Hebrew grammar. I disagree with these overly dogmatic statements of yours:
quote:
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There isnt any indication the author of Genesis and Exodus meant anything other than a 24 hour period. Nothing.
There isnt any evidence in scripture to support that belief. None.
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Its dogmatic only in the sense that its correct.
KB writes:
But to get back to your question (and more toward the thread topic): I mentioned "conservative Evangelical" scholars, so of course these are from the 20th and 21st century, by definition. But Augustine back in the fourth century interpreted the Genesis 1 account (and its days) as figurative and metaphorical rather than literal. A non-literal reading of Genesis 1 is not a new invention, as frequently alleged by YECs.
I didnt suggest that EVERY person before the 20th century believed in a literal Genesis. But the majority most certainly did. Its only through modern times that Genesis now seems to indicate a non-literal interpretation. Why? The evidence is too vast to argue against science.
Why did Augustine think otherwise?
quote:
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Out of curiosity, can you show me a few scholars, who are not Christians, who state that without a doubt, its not literal days?
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KB writes:
Perhaps Nahum Sarna? He is one of the few non-Christian scholars that I've read. I can't find his excellent little book at the moment, but as I recall he views the account as a non-historical "story," much like PD does.
Professor Nahum Sarna, who was chairman of the Department of Near Eastern and Judaic Studies at Brandeis University, Waltham, Massachusetts, referred to the days in Genesis as the same kind of days in the regulatory sacrifices in the Book of Leviticus (i.e. literal days, Lev. 7:15; 22:30).13
Creation Days and Orthodox Jewish Tradition | Answers in Genesis

This message is a reply to:
 Message 161 by kbertsche, posted 03-20-2010 1:30 PM kbertsche has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 165 by kbertsche, posted 03-21-2010 1:58 AM hERICtic has replied

hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4546 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 170 of 271 (551147)
03-21-2010 2:51 PM
Reply to: Message 165 by kbertsche
03-21-2010 1:58 AM


Re: Biblical absurdities
KB writes:
hERICtic, I see no reason for you and I to continue our discussion of the length of the Genesis Days any further. I have already stated and re-stated my position numerous times. You have not grasped some of my points; if you really wish to understand them, you can go back and re-read them carefully. And if you really wish to understand the positions of others (Nahum Sarna, for example) you can read them directly rather than trusting the biased perspectives of YEC sites like AiG.
My concern is to accurately handle the Word of Truth, to avoid adding to it or subtracting from it, to better understand it the way the original writer intended. Your concern seems to be somewhat different; you have already come to a dogmatic conclusion about the length of the Days of Genesis and with to argue and debate this.
Repeatedly, no matter the topic, you YECs want to emphasize and argue the length of the Days of Genesis. This is not the main emphasis of Genesis 1, nor is it the topic of this thread. This thread is about methodology (hermeneutics), not about specific interpretations of specific passages. Let's get back to the topic of the thread.
You have me at a loss. This is the intial post of this thread:
Killinghurts writes:
There are many occasions when reading through the threads here that I come across this sentence:
"Well that's obviously not to be taken literally - it was just a dream/song/interpretation that had at the time"
When reading the bible, what are the rules around what is to be taken literally, and what is not?
So I feel that I am right on topic when discussing if Genesis 1 refers to solar days or long periods of time. One checks for internal information, grammer, language, translation, the mind of the author, the context and so forth. I believe I covered all the areas. I have yet to see you offer any information that its anything but 24 hours. You also have debated Paul and Hydroglyphx in the same respect regarding its its literal or not. Also, I was told to go to this thread and debate my viewpoint on this topic (since it was brought up elsewhere and not really in context of that thread) by PurpleDawn. I do not see how I am not grasping your points though, when in fact, you started to debate me, as Peg and I were discussing the length of the days in Genesis, literal or not. You were the one who addressed my points initially. I have read all the posts here and many clearly are in context as to what you and I are talking about. If you're looking as to "why" the author wrote what he did and from that come to a conclusion as to how he wished Genesis 1 to be revealed, ok.
I have a hard time accepting that the author wrote down everything was perfect, knowing full well at the beginning of creation for millions of years, death and destruction was upon the animal kingdom. But again, I may be off topic bc I am certainly not understanding what you are trying to convey regarding why my viewpoint is off topics concerning this thread. I have read PurpleDawns posts (which I love reading) against Pegs "epoch" point of view, which seem to take the same stance I do, that its not long periods of time. The thread is called "Literal vs Non-Literal", so I would assume my stance on it being a literal day would be on topic, with evidence provided. With the other viewpoint, that its not to be taken literally and why, to be the counter point.
You seem to feel I am dogmatic, when in fact, the evidence is overwhelming. Is adhering to the evidence when little of no counter evidence to the contrary considered dogmatic? I have seen nothing to indicate by anyone that its anyting but a solar day. PD clearly showed the Hebrew grammer points to a solar day. I have provided the context and internal evidence using scripture to show it can only refer to a solar day. you brought up that theologians take it as long periods of time, which I then brought up Old Testament or Hebrew scholars take it as literal. Yet you accuse me of using biased sites? You also accuse me of being a YEC, when in fact, I'm an atheist.
That all being said, I'll stand down. For the simple fact, I love reading what PD has to say, among other people on this topic and other topics. I only joined this thread to debate Peg-which has offered no evidence whatsover to support her view. I also realize why she has taken that stance. That being said, I'll still be around, but as a viewer.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 165 by kbertsche, posted 03-21-2010 1:58 AM kbertsche has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 173 by kbertsche, posted 03-21-2010 4:32 PM hERICtic has not replied

hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4546 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 180 of 271 (551211)
03-21-2010 7:50 PM
Reply to: Message 179 by PaulK
03-21-2010 7:32 PM


Re: Indicator of Days
quote:
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You also accuse me of being a YEC, when in fact, I'm an atheist.
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KB writes:
Sorry; I incorrectly inferred this based on your reliance on YEC sources.
If you're not committed to the YEC position, I recommend getting your information from more scholarly, less biased sources.
Which I have. Just to clear up a point. I have also used OEC, which I have stated. Of the many I frequented, none were able to dispute the many points I brought up with evidence. Some were off the wall trying to twist the Hebrew to make it says the plural, to make it fit long periods of time. I also have stated most Hebrew and OT scholars back my assertions. I use YEC sites, bc its the most easiest to gather information from. But I do use other sources to check how honest they are. Trust me, from debating many years, I would not call ANY apologist site non-biased or honest.
Take care. Well, at least for now.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 179 by PaulK, posted 03-21-2010 7:32 PM PaulK has not replied

hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4546 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 186 of 271 (551271)
03-22-2010 8:06 AM
Reply to: Message 185 by purpledawn
03-22-2010 7:35 AM


Re: Morning and Evening
quote:
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in this verse the righteous persons way of life is slowly revealed until the 'day' (the light) is firmly established...IOW, when the light of day reveals his works.
So it is in the figuative 'morning' of Geneis when the results of Gods creation comes into focus and are clearly seen.
As an example, on the 3rd creative day God caused the dry land to appear. Now the creation of land requires volcanic activity, so we can imagine that millions of large volcanos were active during this period and were spewing out large amounts of lava beneath the waters until they began to form the landmasses. This isnt an overnight process as we know. It takes a long time for an island to form, so during this time was the 'evening' because the process was incomplete, but when it was complete it became the 'morning' or a period of light when all was clearly discernable.
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Just to correct a point. Genesis clearly states the earth was covered by water first, then dry land appeared. Its the other way around. It was the volcanos, on dry land, which spewed forth gasses which created water vapor.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 185 by purpledawn, posted 03-22-2010 7:35 AM purpledawn has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 189 by purpledawn, posted 03-22-2010 9:56 AM hERICtic has not replied

hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4546 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 192 of 271 (551319)
03-22-2010 11:05 AM
Reply to: Message 188 by kbertsche
03-22-2010 8:50 AM


Re: Indicator of Days
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Just to correct a point. Genesis clearly states the earth was covered by water first, then dry land appeared. Its the other way around. It was the volcanos, on dry land, which spewed forth gasses which created water vapor.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PD writes:
Why are you telling me this?
It isn't my comment and it has nothing to do with literal or non-literal when it comes to understanding the use of words within a sentence.
I'm not telling you this, but Peg. Its her quote (my apologies for not including her name though). But yes, it does matter, since Peg brought it up to add validity to her stance. Shes trying to make Genesis 1:9 fit modern science, to prove YOM is actually a long period of time. The problem though, her premise is faulty, therefore her conclusion based upon that premise is.
Edited by hERICtic, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 188 by kbertsche, posted 03-22-2010 8:50 AM kbertsche has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 193 by purpledawn, posted 03-22-2010 4:36 PM hERICtic has not replied
 Message 203 by kbertsche, posted 03-22-2010 8:38 PM hERICtic has not replied

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