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Author | Topic: Define literal vs non-literal. | |||||||||||||||||||||||
purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:Supposedly, but they seem to change depending on what one is protecting. I like the Rules of PARDES Interpretation. P'shat (pronounced peh-shaht' - meaning "simple") is what I would equate to a literal (adhering to fact or to the ordinary construction or primary meaning of a term or expression), but still allows for creative writing styles.
The p'shat is the plain, simple meaning of the text. The understanding of scripture in its natural, normal sense using the customary meanings of the word’s being used, literary style, historical and cultural setting, and context. The p'shat is the keystone of Scripture understanding. If we discard the p'shat we lose any real chance of an accurate understanding and we are no longer objectively deriving meaning from the Scriptures (exegesis), but subjectively reading meaning into the scriptures (eisogesis). I feel that preachers have no problem with "simple reading" until we get to the idea of unity. Unity tends to trump "simple reading".
7) The rule of UNITY: The parts of Scripture being interpreted must be construed with reference to the significance of the whole. An interpretation must be consistent with the rest of Scripture. An excellent example of this is the doctrine of the Trinity. No single passage teaches it, but it is consistent with the teaching of the whole of Scripture (e.g. the Father, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit are referred to individually as God; yet the Scriptures elsewhere teach there is only one God). Literal is relative to doctrine. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
In response to the OP questions you stated in Message 11: It comes down to the meaning of the original word and the context of the passage.
I don't see that you are doing that with the use of "yom" in the Genesis account. I agree that the word "yom" has many meanings and that these meanings are determined by how the word is used within the sentence. By stating that there was evening and there was morning the first day, the author is using the word "yom" to refer to what we call a 24 hour day. I would say your interpretation of a long period of time is not literal (adhering to fact or to the ordinary construction or primary meaning of a term or expression).
Bible Literalism supposedly contains two schools. Letterism and a Historical Grammatical Method.
Letterism attempts to uncover the meaning of the text through a strict emphasis upon a mechanical, wooden literalism of words. This approach often obscures the literary aspects and consequently the primary meaning of the text. The historical grammatical method is a hermeneutic technique that strives to uncover the meaning of the text by taking into account not just the grammatical words, but also the syntactical aspects, the cultural and historical background, and the literary genre. The historical grammatical method is close to the method I prefer, which is P'shat. Your interpretation doesn't seem to fit into either school. The text doesn't say there was evening to morning the first day, it says there was evening and there was morning. I have only one morning and one evening per 24 hour period. I haven't found anything to say otherwise for the time of the priestly writer. I haven't figured out how you can talk of context to determine meaning and then ignore the use of a word within the sentence all together. Your context seems to be in relation to your doctrine, not the text itself. Determining literal and non-literal for the Bible should be the same as when we read any other book. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
So tying this merry-go-round back to the topic of literal interpretations vs non-literal interpretations, what do you consider your approach?
Peg is rather eclectic in her interpretations. She changes methods to suit her belief or doctrine. You seem to do the same. Using the Historical Grammatical Method I mentioned in Message 34, we can tell that Adam's age is not to be taken as a real age. Humans don't live 960 years and to the best of my knowledge, science hasn't found remains that would counter that fact. Per the Documentary Hypothesis, the ages in Genesis 5 were added by the Redactor and weren't part of the original story. So just as we read any other mythical story or fairy tale, we understand the magical and exaggerations to be part of the tale and strive to understand the lesson presented by the story. Per Richard Elliott Friedman, the Priestly writer was writing their own version of the creation story with less obvious magic in it. It is still a story. What we tend to see in arguments on EvC is creative literalism. Passages are interpreted to fit doctrine, not to understand the text. Please try to keep your discussion within the realm of the topic and keep the discussion moving forward, not in circles. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:Pay attention! The verse does not say there was evening to morning. It says there was evening and there was morning. I have a morning and an evening every day. The usage we are discussing is referring to what we currently call a 24 hour day. I can't believe you two are still squawking over this. You're not moving the discussion forward. In the context of the sentence it is referring to a 24 hour day. The story of A&E has no bearing on the usage in the creation verses. You aren't reading the verse literally and reading it non-literally doesn't mean you get to make a context and usage. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:The story isn't depicting a witnessed event. We also have to remember that the people knew of many stories. Since the person who complied the JE and Priestly writings cut and pasted, we have no idea what was left out if anything. God already separated the light from the darkness. What was making the light? The text doesn't say. In legends it is said that the sun and moon were equal at one point.
The fourth day of creation produced the sun, the moon, and the stars. These heavenly spheres were not actually fashioned on this day; they were created on the first day, and merely were assigned their places in the heavens on the fourth.[98] At first the sun and the moon enjoyed equal powers and prerogatives. The writer can only write what he knows. He knows there is an evening and a morning each day. The usage in the verse is consistent with a 24 hour day. Putting the cart before the horse doesn't change the meaning presented by the sentence. Evening (`ereb) means night, sunset. Morning (boqer) means end of night, coming of daylight. The author is making it clear he is speaking of a normal 24 hour day. Where he thought the light was coming from, we don't know. It obviously isn't important to the overall story. Whether the legend existed in some form at the time of the Priestly writer is unknown. Legends progressed orally and changed as the people changed, so the version written down can contain many changes. This version mentions the world to come which is a post exile concept, IMO. If we exclude the possibility that the author knew of the legend and had it in mind, then the author just didn't keep his writing consistent or the Redactor cut and pasted it in a way that made it inconsistent. We don't really know which. The usage in the sentence is clear. The author is speaking of a literal 24 hour day. It doesn't have the markings of a figurative usage. The inconsistencies of the story do not change the meaning in the sentence. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:It's not forcing anything on the text. To argue that it wasn't a 24 hour day is actually trying to force our current knowledge onto the text. His audience didn't have our knowledge as far as I know. It doesn't matter whether chronometers known to man were available on that supposed day in the story. The author is telling his audience it was a regular day. They had an evening and then they had a morning. A day. We can't change what the sentence is saying just because we know there couldn't have been light without the sun. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:Your absurdities have nothing to do with literal vs non-literal interpretation. Your absurdities deal with accuracy of what the text is saying and that isn't what this thread is about. Please don't drag it that direction. It's irrelevant whether the writing meshes with what we know today. It wasn't written for us. The point is whether they were speaking literally or figuratively concerning some words. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:Yes, you don't understand my objection. From the OP:
There are many occasions when reading through the threads here that I come across this sentence: "Well that's obviously not to be taken literally - it was just a dream/song/interpretation that had at the time" When reading the bible, what are the rules around what is to be taken literally, and what is not? Are there any rules? So how does what you're presenting tell us whether the word yom is used literally or figuratively?How does it tell us whether yom is referring to a regular 24 hour day or a long period of time? Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:Yes, according to the story, there were no visual indicators of seasons, days and years on that first day; but the person writing the story understood seasons, days, and years. He is telling his audience it was a regular day. He uses the same phrase before the chronometers and after the chronometers. It may have been devoid of the sun, moon, and stars the people were used to, but the author told his audience it was a regular day. They understood evening and morning. They understood the length of night and day. There is nothing in the text we have that told them that the time was longer or shorter (or unknown) than a day in their time. Remember, according to the Documentary Hypothesis, Genesis 1 is written by the Priestly writer (Composed c. 550-400 BCE). This is the same writer that supposedly wrote the Sabbath commandments. This creation story is the setup for the Sabbath law in the Priestly version of Exodus (20:11).
For in six days the LORD made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them, but he rested on the seventh day. Therefore the LORD blessed the Sabbath day and made it holy. Literal usage of the word yom would be sunrise to sunset or from sunset to sunset.
Strong's: From an unused root meaning to be hot; a day (as the warm hours), whether literal (from sunrise to sunset, or from one sunset to the next), or figurative (a space of time defined by an associated term), (often used adverb) -- age, + always, + chronicals, continually(-ance), daily, ((birth-), each, to) day, (now a, two) days (agone), + elder, X end, + evening, + (for) ever(-lasting, -more), X full, life, as (so) long as (... Live), (even) now, + old, + outlived, + perpetually, presently, + remaineth, X required, season, X since, space, then, (process of) time, + as at other times, + in trouble, weather, (as) when, (a, the, within a) while (that), X whole (+ age), (full) year(-ly), + younger. There is nothing in the text to suggest a figurative use of the word "yom" in Genesis 1:5. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:The author related the length of the first three days the same as the last ones. It was a regular day. You haven't shown that the words deem the meaning otherwise. quote:Please point out the metaphors and symbolism you feel impacts the meaning of yom in the sentences. As I said, it is a just-so-type-story. That doesn't mean a regular day isn't a regular day in the story. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:No science is necessary. It doesn't even matter if the story is about a real event or a fictional event. The words for evening and morning are used in their normal sense as is the word for day. They aren't being used figuratively. Just don't let your discussion with Peg turn into an accuracy and inerrancy type discussion. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:This is called creating your own story and has nothing to do with reading the text literally or non-literally. You're reading into the text (eisegesis) instead of deriving meaning from the text (exegesis). Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:No, reading into the text is not a requirement, but your statement is revealing. There are rules to reading something literally or non-literally and in our day to day reading most people have no problem with it, but when reading the Bible apparently the brain is supposed to take a vacation. The apologetics have Eight Rules of Bible Interpretation. The rules are fine until they get to rules 7 and 8. Let's compare.
God called the light "day," and the darkness he called "night." And there was evening, and there was morning--the first day. 1) The rule of DEFINITION This one's easy. Yom: From an unused root meaning to be hot; a day (as the warm hours), whether literal (from sunrise to sunset, or from one sunset to the next), or figurative (a space of time defined by an associated term), (often used adverb) -- age, + always, + chronicals, continually(-ance), daily, ((birth-), each, to) day, (now a, two) days (agone), + elder, X end, + evening, + (for) ever(-lasting, -more), X full, life, as (so) long as (... Live), (even) now, + old, + outlived, + perpetually, presently, + remaineth, X required, season, X since, space, then, (process of) time, + as at other times, + in trouble, weather, (as) when, (a, the, within a) while (that), X whole (+ age), (full) year(-ly), + younger.
2) The rule of USAGE: It must be remembered that the Old Testament was written originally by, to and for Jews. The words and idioms must have been intelligible to them - just as the words of Christ when talking to them must have been. This one is also not a problem. The common usage of the word "yom" is for a 24 hour day.
3) The rule of CONTEXT: The meaning must be gathered from the context. Every word you read must be understood in the light of the words that come before and after it. Many passages will not be understood at all, or understood incorrectly, without the help afforded by the context. The words around yom (night, day, evening, morning) are consistent with a regular sunset to sunset day.
4) The rule of HISTORICAL BACKGROUND: The interpreter must have some awareness of the life and society of the times in which the Scripture was written. The spiritual principle will be timeless but often can't be properly appreciated without some knowledge of the background. If the interpreter can have in his mind what the writer had in his mind when he wrote - without adding any excess baggage from the interpreter's own culture or society - then the true thought of the Scripture can be captured resulting in an accurate interpretation. Oliver Wendell Holmes said, "Our only interest in the past is for the light it throws upon the present." Ancient Egypt: The Father Of TimeSun Dial of Ahaz: Behold, I will bring again the shadow of the degrees, which is gone down in the sun dial of Ahaz, ten degrees backward. So the sun returned ten degrees, by which degrees it was gone down. (Isaiah 38:8) The Priestly writer was aware of a 24 hour day as was his audience. So they knew the length of a regular day.
5) The rule of LOGIC: Interpretation is merely logical reasoning. When interpreting Scripture, the use of reason is everywhere to be assumed. Does the interpretation make sense? The Bible was given to us in the form of human language and therefore appeals to human reason - it invites investigation. It is to be interpreted as we would any other volume: applying the laws of language and grammatical analysis. Since the common usage for the word "yom" is for a 24 hour day, the logical translation, barring clear indicators, should be for a 24 hour day. The context of the sentence, which mentions evening and morning, clearly tells us that "yom" should be translated as a 24 hour day. There are no indicators in the sentence to suggest otherwise.
6) The rule of PRECEDENT: We must not violate the known usage of a word and invent another for which there is no precedent. Just as a judge's chief occupation is the study of previous cases, so must the interpreter use precedents in order to determine whether they really support an alleged doctrine. Now you like to try a use other verses to set a precedent for what you propose, but this rule does not negate the usage of a word within a specific sentence. The rules of language and grammar still prevail. These last two rules deal more with supporting doctrine, which is what you seem to be doing. They aren't really useful in determining whether a word is being use literally or non-literally.
7) The rule of UNITY: The parts of Scripture being interpreted must be construed with reference to the significance of the whole. An interpretation must be consistent with the rest of Scripture. An excellent example of this is the doctrine of the Trinity. No single passage teaches it, but it is consistent with the teaching of the whole of Scripture (e.g. the Father, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit are referred to individually as God; yet the Scriptures elsewhere teach there is only one God). 8) The rule of INFERENCE: An inference is a fact reasonably implied from another fact. It is a logical consequence. It derives a conclusion from a given fact or premise. It is the deduction of one proposition from another proposition. Such inferential facts or propositions are sufficiently binding when their truth is established by competent and satisfactory evidence. Competent evidence means such evidence as the nature of the thing to be proved admits. Satisfactory evidence means that amount of proof which would ordinarily satisfy an unprejudiced mind beyond a reasonable doubt. Jesus used this rule when he proved the resurrection of the dead to the unbelieving Sadducees in Matt. 22:23-33 Proverbs 4:18 is a simile (An indirect relationship where one thing or idea is described as being similar to another. Similes usually contain the words like or as, but not always.). From the NetBible Notes:
1 tn Heb like light of brightness. This construction is an attributive genitive: bright light. The word light (אוֹר, ’or) refers to the early morning light or the dawn (BDB 21 s.v.). The point of the simile is that the course of life that the righteous follow is like the clear, bright morning light. It is illumined, clear, easy to follow, and healthy and safe — the opposite of what darkness represents. Proverbs 4:18 doesn't shine any light on the use of the word "yom" in Genesis 1:5. (Notice that "shine any light" is figurative and not a literal use of the words. This is because a written verse obviously can't project or hold a light source.) What religious doctrine needs yom in Genesis 1:5 to mean something longer than a normal day? If it's just a matter of trying to reconcile creation with science, then that is an improper way to determine whether something should be taken as literal or non-literal. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:I can't believe you just did that. That usage of yom is not referring to a 24 hour day. "In the day" is the start of the A&E story. This usage does refer to a period of time. Do you really not see the difference? Since the people who translated the various Bible version into English rendered them differently there is obviously something in the Hebrew that indicated the difference to them. Since I'm not versed in Hebrew, I found this article by G.F. Hasel that explains the difference very well.
The "Days" Of Creation In Genesis 1: Literal "Days" Or Figurative "Periods/Epochs" Of Time Let us note these criteria as they are employed in Genesis 2:4. The noun yom is joined to the preposition be to read beyom. Secondly, it is used in a construct relation with the infinitive form of asah, "to make." It reads literally, "in the day of making." This combination of the singular with a preposition in construct with an infinitive98 makes this combination a "temporal conjunction,"99 which serves as a "general introduction of time."100 Genesis 2:4b reads literally, "in [the] day of the Lord God making the earth and heaven. Proper English calls for the literal "in [the] day of," which is syntactically a temporal conjunction that serves as a general introduction of time, to be rendered with "when." This sentence then reads, "When the Lord God made...." This clear-cut case of an extended, non-literal use of yom in the creation account of Genesis 2:4-25 shows that the contrary usage of yom in Genesis 1, without any expected qualifier that marks it as a non-literal use, has a literal meaning. The term yom in Genesis 1 has no prepositions; it is not used in a construct relation and it has no syntactical indicator expected of an extended, non-literal meaning. Thus, in Genesis 1 yom can mean only a literal "day" of 24 hours. In short, the semantic-syntactical usages of yom, "day," in Genesis 1 as compared with semantic-syntactical usages and linguistic connections of this term in other Old Testament passages where it has an extended meaning, does not allow it to mean a long period of time, an age, or the like. The Hebrew language, its grammar, syntax, linguistic structures as well as its semantic usage allows for only the literal meaning of "day" for the creation "days" of Genesis 1. In Strong's we can see the difference in how yom is rendered in each verse.
Genesis 1:5 (yovm)
Genesis 2:4 (beyovm) So there are indicators in Hebrew that determine if the words are to be understood literally or figuratively. You need to show us the indicators because you seem to have it backwards compared to the translations. Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3488 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:I didn't revert. Follow the process. The rule of definition gives all the definitions. The rule of usage, context, and historical background says we go with the most common meaning unless there are indicators that tell us otherwise. quote:It doesn't say evening to morning either. It says there was evening and there was morning. We've been over this, as have others. A regular day has an evening and a morning. When evening hits again, it's another day. The common usage of yom is a regular day. quote:A sundial can only cover the hours of sunlight. It doesn't work in the dark. (Egyptians made a water clock for he dark hours.) I'm not assuming. Read the article. Even if you do want to continue playing the dense card, their days were sunset to sunset or sunrise to sunrise. IOW, a solar day. The common usage of yom refers to that time frame. I'm going to use solar day from now on since you have an issue with hours. Do you really think the Hebrews spent 500 years in Egypt and ignored their time keeping?Do you really think the Hebrews spent over 50 years in exile in Egypt and Babylon and ignored their time keeping? Join reality please.
quote:So what! We have early morning, late morning, afternoon, early afternoon, late afternoon, early evening, late evening, midnight, noon, 1st shift, second shift, third shift, high noon, night watch, etc. and I'm sure there are many more ways to refer to portions of the day without saying the word hour. The Bible was not written to explain their time measure to the people. Their audience was already aware of how time worked. When I say the word hour, I'm referring to a section of time in a solar day. In ancient times these sections weren't necessarily even. They changed with the seasons. You would know this if you bothered to read the links I provided.
Hebrew Hours The Hebrew day and hours have no fixed length. The Hebrew day is modeled after the scripture reference there was evening and there was morning found in the following scriptures in the story of Creation: Gen 1:5, Gen 1:8, Gen 1:13, Gen 1:19, Gen 1:23, Gen 1:31 and Gen 2.2. The Hebrew Day is based on twelve hours of Daylight and twelve hours of Night. Every day has twelve hours and every night has twelve hours. Each day begins with sunrise and ends with sunset and each hour is determined by the amount of daylight there is, hence that no day is fixed and hours are different each day. Wow, just like Egypt and Babylon!
quote:Daylight yes, a solar day, no. Jesus was speaking of daytime. They had a word for night and one for day and one for "a night and a day". Why are you trying to use Greek to make a point about Genesis? The watches were divided for the guards. So if there were four watches the guards had roughly 3 hours (sections of time) each. Splitting the night into 4 sections and not 12 doesn't change the length of a solar day. Greek was a more precise language than Hebrew. This doesn't change how the word yom is used in Genesis 1:5. Yom is still referring to a solar day.
quote:Knowing that the planet is not square doesn't help in your example since the word translated as earth didn't refer to the planet. Not the Planet So what religious doctrine needs yom in Genesis 1:5 to mean something longer than a normal day? Scripture is like Newton’s third law of motionfor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In other words, for every biblical directive that exists, there is another scriptural mandate challenging it. -- Carlene Cross in The Bible and Newton’s Third Law of Motion
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