Is man inherently good or inherently evil?

I don't understand how you draw this conclusion.From your quotes, we have Peter saying: I interpret this to mean that Peter is saying we are saved with the blood of Christ.In your quotes above, Paul says:and How are these in contradiction to each other?

Salvation is by faith.Can you please post the verse(s) that you believe supports what you say about Peter?

I am going to assume you are referring to 1Peter 1:17, if this is not correct, please correct me.1Peter 1:17 says: Peter is not referring to salvation in this passage. He is referring to God's impartiality towards people with regard to their status or position.

This verse: is the one I am claiming is not referencing salvation.These verses, I believe, do refer to salvation:

1 Peter 1:17 says: The verse is a statement about a characteristic of God. Namely, that he does not show favoritism to any man simply because of his status, job, title, wealth, etc. Instead, God looks at what a person does to determine what his [God's] response will be to that person.I realize that the use of the term "judgeth" can lead someone to make the association with salvation. But, if we consider that, in the subsequent verses, Peter goes on to say that we are redeemed with the blood of Christ, that interpretation is contradicted.Rrhain, what do you believe Peter means when he says that we are redeemed with the blood of Christ?

My answer to your question is twofold.For a "saved" [through faith in Jesus] person, I believe that God "judgeth" our works to determine if he will bless us or discipline us: Hebrews 12:6-7For an "unsaved" person [someone who has rejected God's offer of grace through Jesus], he "judgeth" in this wise: Hebrews 10:28-31

Hi Rrhain (I feel as if I know you, somewhat),Let's look at the passage in question again: I interpret this verse to mean:"And if you call on God, who is impartial, pass the time of your stay here in fear."Removing the term "judgeth" and paraphrasing, it is easier for me to show you how I am viewing this particular verse.In the subsequent verses, Peter goes on to state that we are redeemed (saved) with the blood of Christ.This seems to be in agreement with Paul's preaching.To answer your other question of: God is constantly "judging" because he is constantly evaluating the behavior of people.Again, this judging is not always regarding salvation. He can "judge" (evaluate) a saved person's actions simply to bless him or chasten him.He will ultimately judge everyone, at some point, to determine their eternal destiny.The people that accepted his offer of grace through Jesus Christ will not be judged to determine their salvation. They are redeemed, as Peter put it, through the blood of Jesus.Those people that knowingly rejected God's offer of grace, will perish.The other group of people, that had only limited knowledge of God, he will judge on a case by case basis, IMO.Psalm 98:9 reads:

Hi Rrhain, Your question of "Why is god judging?", does not follow, logically, from Peter's statement. Peter's statement in 1Peter 1:17: as I have stated before, can be reasonably translated as: The reason it is more reasonable than your interpretation is because Peter goes on to say that we are redeemed (saved) through the blood of Jesus in the subsequent verses.Your interpretation results in Peter contradicting himself (and Paul) in the same chapter.Does that seem likely?

The issues that Rrhain and I are discussing are:

1. Is salvation is by faith (grace through faith) or by works?
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2. What does Peter say concerning item 1?

Hi Rrhain,I went back to your original post that I first responded to concerning your statements of faith vs. works. I realized we were going OT and was wondering how that got started.Anyway, I just realized that you also said this: Can you show me, in your post, where Peter and Paul said these things?

Hi Jar,Can you support your statement?

Thank you Jar.I will go over to the other thread.

Hi Rrhain, It isn't logical because you have taken the statement: out of context. Taken in context, particularly the subsequent verses, your argument breaks down.Your interpretation that Peter says salvation is by works is in direct contradiction to what Peter says in 1Peter 1:18-19:

Hi Rrhain,I just read your post again.And, again, I did not find support for your statements.Please post the specific verses which you believe supports your statement:

Hi Rrhain,I assert that you, in fact, did not have support for the statements I asked you about. But, I won't pursue this anymore.I just finished reading all of the new posts on the Genesis 1 vs. Genesis 2 thread. I apologize for not responding all weekend.I guess we'll continue when the mods re-open the thread.BTW, at my church on Sunday, the pastor asked us to turn to 1 Peter 17-19. Talk about coincidence!Unfortunately, the pastor didn't focus on the portion that we're debating. Also, they use the NIV version of the bible.While I had the NIV bible though, I decided to turn to Genesis 2 and check out some of the wording.In the NIV version, Genesis 2:19 says: It is interesting that the authors use the phrase "had formed".This particular interpretation does not lend itself to an apparent contradiction regarding the timeline, atleast not in that verse.Anyway, I don't want to go OT in this thread so I will wait till the thread is re-opened.