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Author Topic:   GENESIS 22:17 / NOT A PROMISE GIVEN TO THE JEWS
Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 11 of 337 (130487)
08-04-2004 8:58 PM
Reply to: Message 3 by Cold Foreign Object
08-04-2004 4:45 PM


Re: Unchallenged
quote:
Originally posted by WILLOWTREE
Testimony to the scholarship of Dr. Scott.
You need to get out more. Dr. Scott didn't invent this. This silly notion has been around since the 1600's and has been further perpetrated by the likes of:
Howard Rand & his "Christian Identity" (1889-1991)
Wesley Swift (1913-1970)
Richard Butler (1918-present)
Herbert W. Armstrong, minister ordained in 1934 > whose following eventually led to the formation of "The World Wide Church of God".
Ted R. Weiland
And Edward Hine, who incorporated your pyramidism into this British-Israelism notion.
As it is, however, the population groups in the British Isles do not carry the genetic markers that would be present in any descendants of the Israelites.
quote:
In Western Europe, including the United Kingdom, ABO gene frequencies have a distribution of A 25%, B 6%, O 68%. In the British Isles there are clearly established gradations of increasing O and decreasing A gene frequencies from south-east to north-west, and higher B gene frequencies tend to occur in the Celtic parts of Britain.
The Israelites closest living relatives would be the Jews. If the British are Israelites, then the British should have similar blood and genetic markers to the Jews. Yet, the Jewish people of the Middle East have markedly different blood group frequencies than are found in Britain.
{Ebling, F.J. Racial Variation in Man; Institute of Biology Symposium, #22, 1975. Pg. 20 with Cavali-Sforza (population genetics) from David M. Williams, British Israelism - an expose'}
British-Israelism is based on nothing more compelling than such things as Herbert Armstrong's silly notion that the word "Saxon" was derived from "Isaac's sons". Apparently, it escaped Mr. Armstrong's attention that "Isaac" is merely the later Latinized version of the Hebrew "Yitschaq". Or, perhaps he simply felt that "bene Yitschaq" would be just too difficult to mangle into "Saxon".
Another stunning connection made by the British-Israelism proponents is that the names Danube, Denmark, Danzig, and etc., obviously must have been places that the tribe of Dan passed through on their way to the British Isles.
So, WILLOWTREE, given your infatuation with Dr. Scott, perhaps it is best for you that he didn't dream up this drivel.
It is to weep,
Amlodhi
This message has been edited by Amlodhi, 08-04-2004 08:06 PM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 3 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-04-2004 4:45 PM Cold Foreign Object has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 12 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-04-2004 9:03 PM Amlodhi has replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 13 of 337 (130497)
08-04-2004 9:13 PM
Reply to: Message 12 by Cold Foreign Object
08-04-2004 9:03 PM


Re: Unchallenged
WILLOWTREE,
I called this notion "silly drivel", which it is. I hardly think that qualifies as flying off the handle. And I have no idea what, "your 'refutation' of racism slander", is supposed to mean.
Did you have anything of substance that you wished to address? Or are you just looking for an excuse.
Amlodhi

This message is a reply to:
 Message 12 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-04-2004 9:03 PM Cold Foreign Object has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 16 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-05-2004 5:01 PM Amlodhi has replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 18 of 337 (130805)
08-05-2004 6:48 PM
Reply to: Message 16 by Cold Foreign Object
08-05-2004 5:01 PM


Re: Unchallenged
quote:
Originally posted by WILLOWTREE
Just because some nut . . .
OK. Perhaps you agree that the evidence presented by the persons listed in my post was nothing more than a silly notion. Fair enough. And if you're not using their evidence, I won't call your idea a silly notion.
But if you're not using their evidence, you should present some of your own. So far I've seen nothing but an assertion that the captives of Israel eventually left Assyria, spread across Europe and ended up in the British Isles.
Your next assertion is that the apostles then first spread the word to the descendents of these Israelites. But you don't say who and you don't say where. Europe? The British Isles?
You have every right to believe whatever pleases you, but I have other things to do than wade through a website on this topic.
It's your assertion; your OP; tell us where the apostles first went and who they preached to that are allegedly descendents of the Israelites.
Amlodhi

This message is a reply to:
 Message 16 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-05-2004 5:01 PM Cold Foreign Object has not replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 23 of 337 (130902)
08-06-2004 1:39 AM
Reply to: Message 20 by Cold Foreign Object
08-05-2004 9:56 PM


In addition to my earlier inquiry, maybe you can clarify this:
quote:
WILLOWTREE
. . . the 10 ten tribe Northern Kingdom, also known as House of Israel IS NOT COMPRISED OF JEWS.
This means when these peoples escaped Assyria THEY WERE NOT JEWS NOR DID THEY LOOK LIKE JEWS
Judah (Southern Kingdom) was the offspring of Jacob and Leah.
Reuben, Simeon, Levi, Issachar, Zebulun (Northern Kingdom) were also the offspring of Jacob and Leah.
Benjamin (Southern Kingdom) was the offspring of Jacob and Rachel (Leah's full sister).
Joseph, who sired Ephraim & Manasseh (Northern Kingdom) was also the offspring of Jacob and Rachel (Leah's full sister)
Dan and Naphtali were the offspring of Jacob and Bilhah (concubine)
Gad and Asher were the offspring of Jacob and Zilpah (concubine)
Thus Judah (Southern Kingdom) and Reuben, Simeon, Levi, Issachar, Zebulun (Northern Kingdom) all had Jacob as father and Leah as mother.
Benjamin (Southern Kingdom) and Joseph, who sired Ephraim & Manasseh (Northern Kingdom), both had Jacob as father and Rachel as mother. (Plus, Leah and Rachel were full sisters).
So why wouldn't these people look alike? Why, for instance, would Judah (your Jews) not look like his full brothers (your Israelites)?
Thus, the only way the "Israelites" would have not "looked like" the "Jews" when they left Assyria is if they did a whole lot of interbreeding with the Assyrians while they were there. Is this what you are trying to say?
Or since Ephraim and Manasseh had an Egyptian mother, maybe they looked like Egyptians?
Can you clarify just what you're trying to say here?
Amlodhi
This message has been edited by Amlodhi, 08-06-2004 12:41 AM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 20 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-05-2004 9:56 PM Cold Foreign Object has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 26 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-06-2004 5:00 PM Amlodhi has replied
 Message 35 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-06-2004 6:40 PM Amlodhi has replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 28 of 337 (131061)
08-06-2004 5:12 PM
Reply to: Message 26 by Cold Foreign Object
08-06-2004 5:00 PM


WILLOWTREE,
Why are you going back and dredging up that quote when, in my subsequent posts, I agreed that it was unfair to link you with those others and that I would give your evidence a clean hearing?
It's not that old, 'excuse to cut and run' thing, is it?
Amlodhi

This message is a reply to:
 Message 26 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-06-2004 5:00 PM Cold Foreign Object has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 30 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-06-2004 5:22 PM Amlodhi has not replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 36 of 337 (131365)
08-07-2004 3:10 PM
Reply to: Message 35 by Cold Foreign Object
08-06-2004 6:40 PM


quote:
Originally posted by WILLOWTREE
The Northern 10 tribe kingdom were already resettled by the Assyrians circa 720 BC. From this point in history onwards they are dispersed and long separated from their "Jewish" brethern.
Agreed. But it's not your recounting of history that I have a problem with. It's your subsequent leap to a (so far) unsupported conclusion.
One important thing to keep in mind is the difference between the Assyrian relocation of Israel and the later Babylonian captivity of Judah. When the Assyrians relocated (most) of the population of the Northern Kingdom, they basically swapped populatons. The population of Israel was relocated beyond the Euphrates to the previously captured areas around Nineveh, i.e Babylonia (Iraq), and Persia (Iran). While at the same time, the previously conquered populations around Babylonia and Persia were conversely relocated to the former territory of Israel. Whereas, during the Babylonian captivity of Judah, this wasn't done and Judah is described as being desolate during this period.
Also, the Assyrians retained control of these areas from c. 746 - 609 B.C. So, by 609 B.C., the Israelites had been in their relocated dwellings for c. 111 yrs. There was no decree for them to return to their homeland and they had no homeland to return to because the other group had now been living in and possessing (the former) Israelite land for also c. 111 yrs. Further, in c. 609 B.C. the Assyrians lost control of these territories precisely because the Babylonians gained control of them. Thus, it was only about 20 yrs. later, in c. 586 B.C., that the temple in Jerusalem was destroyed and the final groups of Judeans were marched off to captivity in Babylon.
Note then, that when Cyrus conquered Babylon in c. 539 B.C., the Judeans had only been away from their homeland approximately 50+/- years, they had a royal decree to return to their homeland, reclaim their land and rebuild their temple. At this same point in time, however, the Israelites had now been in their relocation for c. 161 yrs. and they had no homeland to return to because it had been owned and occupied by the other group for that same 161 yrs.
Even so, records tell us that many of the Judeans opted not to return to Judea. They had built comfortable lives for themselves in Babylon and saw no reason to uproot themselves again. Thus, it is not the least surprising that after 161 yrs. and with no homeland to reclaim, the Israelites would have remained in their relocation.
In book 11, chapter 5, section 2 of Josephus' Antiquities, he recounts a history of the Jews preparing to leave the Babylonian territory for Judea and makes a specific reference to Israel:
quote:
. . .when these Jews understood what piety the king had toward God . . . many of them took their effects with them and came to Babylon (the city), as very desirous of going down to Jerusalem; but then the entire body of the people of Israel remained in that country (i.e. Babylonia, the country they had been dispersed to by Assyria c. 161 years before.); wherefore there are but two tribes in Asia and Europe subject to the Romans, while the ten tribes are beyond the Euphrates till now, and are an immense multitude, and not to be estimated by numbers. {all emphases added}
Now, Josephus says that the Israelites "remained in that country", and "beyond the Euphrates" is a phrase that refers to Persia/Babylonia, i.e. "the other side of the river".
Map Courtesy of Goodnews Christian Ministry
He also says that there are only two tribes (Judah and Benjamin) in Asia and Europe subject to the Romans. Thus, "till now" and "subject to the Romans" alerts us that Josephus is here talking about his own time, i.e. 1st century A.D.
Maps, Archaeology And Sources - Charting The Reach Of The Roman Empire In Jesus' Time | From Jesus To Christ | FRONTLINE | PBS
In the above image, we see the extent of the Roman Empire as it existed in the 1st century. It is only Judah and Benjamin within this empire; Israel is still across the Euphrates.
http://www.pbs.org/...line/shows/religion/maps/apostles.html
The above is a color coded map depicting the areas where the apostles spread the gospel. You will note that it is entirely within the region subject to the Romans and at no point is it "beyond the Euphrates".
Thus, I am still looking for an answer to the question of where the apostles first went to and who they talked to in order to fulfill the command to "go to the lost sheep of Israel".
Also, any evidence backing the claim that at some point the Israelites left the region of Persia/Babylonia and traveled up around the Black Sea, into Russia and subsequently found their way to the British Isles.
Concise answers to these questions, please. I know the history; let's cut to the chase.
Amlodhi
This message has been edited by Amlodhi, 08-07-2004 03:03 PM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 35 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-06-2004 6:40 PM Cold Foreign Object has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 37 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-07-2004 8:51 PM Amlodhi has replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 38 of 337 (131463)
08-07-2004 11:12 PM
Reply to: Message 37 by Cold Foreign Object
08-07-2004 8:51 PM


quote:
Originally posted by WILLOWTREE
70 years - not 50.
Yes, I know the story. However:
There were two deportations of Judea. The first was in 597 B.C. at the first conquest of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar. At this time, Jehoiakim and some of the more distinguished residents were deported.
The second deportation took place upon the destruction of the city and the temple in 586 B.C.
597 - 539 = 58 years and 586 - 539 = 47 years.
Thus, I rounded the timespan to "approximately" 50 years. However, it was c. 70 years from the destruction of the 1st temple to the building of the 2nd one.
Believe what you like; I prefer to count.
quote:
WILLOWTREE:
Here you suddenly inter-mix the two kingdoms.
No, here I contrast & compare the two kingdoms. Please take the time to comprehend what is written.
quote:
Originally posted by Amlodhi:
Even so, records tell us that many of the Judeans opted not to return to Judea. They had built comfortable lives for themselves in Babylon and saw no reason to uproot themselves again. Thus, it is not the least surprising that after 161 yrs. and with no homeland to reclaim, the Israelites would have remained in their relocation.
Read carefully and you will see: many of the Judeans opted to stay in Babylon even though they had only been there some 50 +/- years (or even 70 years if you really want).
Thus, in comparison, it is no surprise that the Israelites would opt to stay since they had been there 161 years by this time and had no unoccupied homeland to return to.
Just wanted to clear up these minor issues for now. Thank you for presenting some of the bases for doctor Scott's theory. I will evaluate these issues ASAP.
Amlodhi
This message has been edited by Amlodhi, 08-07-2004 10:17 PM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 37 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-07-2004 8:51 PM Cold Foreign Object has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 39 by jar, posted 08-07-2004 11:26 PM Amlodhi has replied
 Message 40 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-07-2004 11:36 PM Amlodhi has replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 41 of 337 (131560)
08-08-2004 9:41 AM
Reply to: Message 39 by jar
08-07-2004 11:26 PM


quote:
Originally posted by jar
Of course you realize this old theory . . .
Hi jar,
Yes, I do realize. (See my post #11)
However, WILLOWTREE has disclaimed any connection between the bases for these earlier theories and those of Dr. Scott. Thus, I agreed that, rather than impute guilt by association, I would give Dr. Scott's premises a clean hearing.
Also, in all fairness, I think few scholars would claim that the Northern tribes have no history. IIRC, E.A. Speiser has indeed suggested some etymological connections to "Bit-Hu-um-ri-a" in the Assyrian records.
Thus, for starters, I'm just trying to get a handle on exactly what is being claimed here and why. Then, we shall see.
Amlodhi

This message is a reply to:
 Message 39 by jar, posted 08-07-2004 11:26 PM jar has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 43 by jar, posted 08-08-2004 1:26 PM Amlodhi has replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 42 of 337 (131563)
08-08-2004 10:08 AM
Reply to: Message 40 by Cold Foreign Object
08-07-2004 11:36 PM


quote:
Originally posted by WILLOWTREE
They roamed into Europe, like true nomads/wanderers/Hebrews.
I understand your position. However, the ultimate fate of the Northern tribes is the topic under discussion. Not an agreed upon and foregone conclusion.
quote:
WILLOWTREE:
Are you familiar with heraldry ?
Yes.
Also, as briefly touched upon in my last post, I have, and/or have access to, most of the information contained in the ancient Assyrian records. I am in the process of locating Speiser's (and other's) etymological suggestions for review. Then I will take a look at the artifactual citations you have provided. This may take a couple of days. As they say, the devil is in the details.
Amlodhi

This message is a reply to:
 Message 40 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-07-2004 11:36 PM Cold Foreign Object has not replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 44 of 337 (131672)
08-08-2004 4:07 PM
Reply to: Message 43 by jar
08-08-2004 1:26 PM


Hi jar,
I'm only passingly familiar with the Cohanim lineage DNA typing and I don't even remember where I first read about it. IIRC, it was Dr. Michael Hammer's discovery (I remember the name because I thought it coincidental that it is also the name of a fictitious private investigator, i.e. Mike Hammer). Also that it is based on male Y chromosome similarities.
I'm unaware of any such general study (either for this priestly line or otherwise) on European populations to date, but as to the ability to do DNA mapping to identify any populations descended from the Northern tribes, I don't think there is any question. I'm reasonably sure we already have the techniques, it will only be a matter of employing them.
It will be an interesting avenue of near-future research into this question. I'm glad you brought it up.
Amlodhi

This message is a reply to:
 Message 43 by jar, posted 08-08-2004 1:26 PM jar has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 45 by jar, posted 08-08-2004 4:19 PM Amlodhi has replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 46 of 337 (131705)
08-08-2004 8:43 PM
Reply to: Message 45 by jar
08-08-2004 4:19 PM


Thanks for the link, jar. Fascinating transcript. Now that you've rekindled my interest, I also found this:
Page not found - aish.com
One of the particulars that I found interesting in this article is that, although the Cohanim tend to exhibit this genetic marker (still, after c. 3000 yrs?), the extended (or, non-Aaronic) remainder of the Levite tribe seem not to. The explanation for the Cohanim motif is, of course, the succession of the Aaronite priesthood from father to son. And yet, Aaron could not have been that many generations removed from Jacob himself. Thus, by the same token, if Jacob passed his Y motif on to his 12 sons, it would seem that this (Jacob-Y) genetic marker would show up in the descendants of all the 12 tribes just as the descendants of Aaron exhibit the Cohanim motif.
It seems to me then that, (outside of the Aaronic or 'Cohanim' lineage), the so-called 12 tribes were either not, in reality, all descended from a recent common ancestor, or there has been a great deal of outside influx into the male Y genetic pool down through the ages.
Fascinating aspect of the topic that I will be interested in exploring further. Thanks again,
Amlodhi
This message has been edited by Amlodhi, 08-08-2004 07:48 PM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 45 by jar, posted 08-08-2004 4:19 PM jar has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 47 by jar, posted 08-08-2004 10:46 PM Amlodhi has not replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 48 of 337 (132182)
08-09-2004 11:59 PM
Reply to: Message 37 by Cold Foreign Object
08-07-2004 8:51 PM


Hello WILLOWTREE,
As promised, I am in the process of taking a close look at these claims. Since a detailed response to all the items that are simply asserted in your post would take several pages, I intend to address individual items as they present themselves. As such:
quote:
Originally posted by WILLOWTREE
Israelites, called Gimira by Assyria, and Kimmeroii (Cimmerians) by Greeks, established a reign of terror in Asia Minor, from 710-590 B.C., and finally migrated to Europe; to a place they called Arsareth. (2 Esdras 13:40-44 in the Apocrypha) This group was a part of the Israelites that left Egypt before Israel came under bondage.
I have a problem with this. Most of the quotes from the copious websites promoting this theory do not include the last sentence of your cut & paste:
quote:
710-590 B C. Israelites, called Gimira by the Assyrians and Kimmeroii(Cimmerians) by the Greeks, established a reign of terror in Asia Minor. They finally migrated to Europe, to a place which they called Arsareth (2 Esdras 13:40-44 of the Apochrypha)
http://asis.com/~stag/migratio.html
Then along comes "prepare-ye-the-way" and includes the addition:
quote:
Israelites, called Gimira by Assyria, and Kimmeroii (Cimmerians) by Greeks, established a reign of terror in Asia Minor, from 710-590 B.C., and finally migrated to Europe; to a place they called Arsareth. (2 Esdras 13:40-44 in the Apocrypha) This group was a part of the Israelites that left Egypt before Israel came under bondage.
http://www.prepare-ye-the-way.com/celts01.htm
Now, the reason for this addition is obvious. That reason being that the Cimmerians "established a reign of terror in Asia Minor from 710 - 590 B.C." Further, this gloss is not quite correct either. Specifically, according to secular history and the Assyrian records, the Cimmerians threatened the kingdom of Urartu, which prompted king Rusa of Urartu to launch a pre-emptive attack. The Cimmerians defeated Rusa in this attack in 720 B.C. and then proceeded to invade Urartu.
This caused panic in Phrygia, a kingdom in western Turkey. In 710/709, king Midas ('Mit-ta-a' in the Assyrian records) was forced to ask for help from the Assyrian king Sargon II. However, this did not prevent the Cimmerian invasion. In 696/695, Midas committed suicide after he had lost a battle.
Therefore, since it would be inconceivable that the Israelites were supposedly threatening and attacking Urartu at the very time that they were a defeated nation and being deported, it would also be inconceivable to equate these Cimmerians with the Israelites.
Thus the addition: "These Cimmerians weren't descendants of the ten tribes who were deported, but were descended from a group of Israelites that left Egypt before the bondage." And the Apocryphal II Esdras is given as a reference.
However, II Esdras is a document that was written in the time of Domitian and has little credibility. But, more importantly, II Esdras 13 says nothing about this group that supposedly left Egypt.
quote:
II Esdras 13:40-47
40. Those are the ten tribes, which were carried away prisoners out of their own land in the time of Osea the king, whom Salmanasar the king of Assyria led away captive, and he carried them over the waters, and so came they into another land.
41. But they took this counsel among themselves, that they would leave the multitude of the heathen, and go forth into a further country, where never mankind dwelt,
42. That they might there keep their statutes, which they never kept in their own land.
43. And they entered into Euphrates by the narrow places of the river.
44. For the most High then shewed signs for them, and held still the flood, till they were passed over.
45. For through that country there was a great way to go, namely, of a year and a half: and the same region is called Arsareth.
46. Then dwelt they there until the latter time; and now when they shall begin to come,
47. The Highest shall stay the springs of the stream again, that they may go through: therefore sawest thou the multitude with peace.
We see here then that, diametrically contrary to the claim, II Esdras specifically identifies the group that allegedly went to Arsareth as the 10 tribes of the deportation from the time of king Hoshea (732-722).
Thus, your own citation appears to contradict you. Therefore, without a credible explanation, that add-on sentence is a meaningless gloss, and we are left with the dilemma of how the Israelites could be at war with Urartu and threatening Phrygia, (Assyrian allies no less), at the same time that they were a defeated nation being deported by Assyria.
Secular history answers this question quite adequately: the Israelites weren't the Cimmerians. Archaeologists have identified the Cimmerians with the Novocerkassk culture of the southern Ukraine c. 900 B.C., with the Crimea, (a word likely derived from the Germanic "krim", referring to the pelts they wore), still retaining the name derived from their occupation there. Being a nomadic people, the name Gimirru, given to them by the Assyrians, means "people traveling back and forth".
References:
Vjaceslav J. Murzin, Kimmerier und Skythen in: R. Rolle, M Mller-Wille, K. Schietzel (eds.) Gold der Steppe. Archologie der Ukraine, 1991 Schleswig, pages 57-70
Sergej Machortych, Kimmerier in Nordkaukasien in: R. Rolle, M Mller-Wille, K. Schietzel (eds.) Gold der Steppe. Archologie der Ukraine, 1991 Schleswig, pages 71-73
Error 404 - Livius
In summary: It seems a group of Israelites leaving pre-bondage Egypt is being conjectured because it is recognized that the 10 tribes of the deportation cannot have been the Cimmerians who invaded Urartu and threatened Phyrgia c. 720 B.C. Yet the given citation (II Esdras) does not support, (and actually contradicts), this conjecture.
Thus, unless you have some credible explanation, your own sources refute the allegation that the Israelites were the Cimmerians.
As I continue to look into the other items on your list, I will be interested in your response to this issue.
Amlodhi

This message is a reply to:
 Message 37 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-07-2004 8:51 PM Cold Foreign Object has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 49 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-10-2004 12:44 AM Amlodhi has replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 50 of 337 (132230)
08-10-2004 1:19 AM
Reply to: Message 49 by Cold Foreign Object
08-10-2004 12:44 AM


quote:
Originally posted by WILLOWTREE
We are claiming that these warriors were descendants of the ruling Zarahites also known as the Shepard Kings, who ruled Egypt from the time of Joseph's death until about 100 years prior to the Exodus (c.1550 BC)
I can prove descendants of Zara were already in Britain by 1100 BC. But not in this post - ASAP.
I will await this proof; we're in no hurry. (But this still doesn't explain why you cited II Esdras 13:40-44 as evidence for this group.)
Amlodhi

This message is a reply to:
 Message 49 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-10-2004 12:44 AM Cold Foreign Object has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 51 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-10-2004 8:50 PM Amlodhi has replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 52 of 337 (132530)
08-10-2004 8:58 PM
Reply to: Message 51 by Cold Foreign Object
08-10-2004 8:50 PM


Hello WILLOWTREE,
I just left a note for you on Brian's exodus thread; not noticing that you had posted here again.
As it is, I'm afraid your links are not only unacceptable, but are also against forum rules. I have no intention of debating with a website, whether by link or cut&paste.
If you can't explain it yourself, you don't understand it yourself. I will await your promised evidence.
Amlodhi

This message is a reply to:
 Message 51 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-10-2004 8:50 PM Cold Foreign Object has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 53 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-10-2004 9:23 PM Amlodhi has not replied
 Message 58 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-10-2004 11:53 PM Amlodhi has not replied

Amlodhi
Inactive Member


Message 63 of 337 (132898)
08-11-2004 4:32 PM
Reply to: Message 54 by Cold Foreign Object
08-10-2004 11:34 PM


Re: Red Hand of Zarah
Hello WILLOWTREE,
Since jar appears to be addressing the heraldic symbology, in this post I will outline some of the other points that (so far) I think are deficient regarding this theory.
Also, I know you are otherwise involved, but there is no hurry to respond. Please, slow down and take the time to fully understand what is being stated before you respond; as backtracking to correct misapprehensions gets wearisome quickly.
One of the sites in support of your theory makes this statement:
quote:
There is very little if anything to indicate that the Scots came solely from Ulster. On the contrary, their own records state that they came from Scythia, which is the ancient name of the country to the west and north of the Caspian Sea.
In view of the origin of the Red Hand emblem in the event recorded in Genesis 38, and in the fact that a Red Hand thereby became one of the emblems of the descendants of Zara-Judah, we conclude that the people who brought the Red Hand to Ulster so long ago and the Scots who later brought it to Scotland, though coming at different times, had a common origin, at least in part, in the Zara branch of the Tribe of Judah.
So here we have it stated that there were two separated branches of Zaraite descent using the Red Hand emblem. One (from your statements) coming from Egypt and arriving in Ulster earlier, and another coming from Scythia, and arriving in Scotland, later. Yet, we also know from Numbers 26:20 that there was, then, a third branch of Zaraite descent with the exodus group on the plains of Moab.
Now, we need to take a close look at what this theory is based on:
1.You say, "The Zaraites left Egypt before the bondage."
Since I have seen no record of this event ever happening, this assertion appears to be based strictly on the following two (somewhat tenuous) conjectures:
a. The Red Hand emblem.
The conjecture here is that the Red Hand (gules >red; dexter > hand) emblem is derived from the biblical account of Zerah's birth. But as we see quoted from above, since "there is little if anything to indicate that the Scots came solely from Ulster", and since they claim to have come from Scythia, we must now posit a second branch of Zaraites coming from Scythia and also employing this Red Hand emblem. However, as mentioned, Numbers 26:20 says that "of Judah . . of Zerah, the family of the Zaraites" were among the exodus group. We should then, also see this Red Hand emblem associated with this third group of Zaraites in Judea.
b. You say, "Calcol, a Zarahite (1Chron.2:6) landed in Spain. He founded ZARAgossa."
First, it is more properly Zaragota. Further, I have seen no record for the existence or use of this name before c. 15 B.C. when, at its founding as a Roman colony, it received the name of "Cesarauguta" in honor of the Emperor Caesar Augustus. In the year 714, Cesarauguta was conquered by the Moors and the name morphed to "Saragusta", then finally to the modern Zaragota.
So, let's recap:
So far it seems that your hypothesis is based on one assertion supported only by two somewhat tenuous conjectures.
1. I have seen no record of a Zerah branch leaving Egypt before the bondage.
2. Since Numbers 26:20 specifically lists the family of Zaraites as being among the exodus group, it must be assumed that the bible really means "only a part of the Zaraites".
Also, since it must be postulated that there were two other Zaraite groups (one out of Egypt and one from Scythia) both employing the Red Hand emblem, why have I not seen you present evidence connecting this heraldic symbology with the third Zaraite branch that came into Judea with the exodus group?
3. I have seen no record of the name "Zaragossa" (Zaragota) in any record before the founding of Cesarauguta c. 15 B.C. and, as has been mentioned, simply matching similar syllables can lead to any number of pseudo-connections.
Now I want to touch on where you're going with this. You have made these statements:
quote:
(Omri) becomes Gimmiria and Greek Kimmerioi to Cimmerian.
Israelites, called Gimira by Assyria, and Kimmeroii (Cimmerians) by Greeks, established a reign of terror in Asia Minor, from 710-590 B.C., and finally migrated to Europe; to a place they called Arsareth. (2 Esdras 13:40-44 in the Apocrypha) This group was a part of the Israelites that left Egypt before Israel came under bondage.
It is these descendants of Zara who are the Cimmerians/Gimira.
I can prove descendants of Zara were already in Britain by 1100 BC.
Let's look at these statements in proximity to each other:
The "house of Omri" (Humri, Hu-um-ri-i, etc.) is the Assyrian name for the Northern Kingdom. Thus, you say that, through word morphology (Omri > (K)Humri > Gimirri > Cimmerian), the dispersed 10 tribes become known as the Cimmerians.
Now, what you didn't seem to understand from my previous post is that we both already know that the Northern kingdom could not have been attacking Urartu in c. 720 B.C.; that is precisely why the "(earlier) group out of Egypt" had to be postulated.
Then next, you identify this "earlier group out of Egypt" as the Zaraites and say that it was these Zaraites who were actually the Cimmerians attacking Urartu in 720 B.C.
But why would a group of Zaraites, of the house of Judah, attacking Urartu from the north, be called by a name derived from "the house of Omri", i.e. from your morphology, "Cimmerians"? Especially since the "house of Omri" (the Cimmerians) had just been marched off across the Euphrates.
And finally, you make these statements:
quote:
The Jews were never given or promised to be "as the stars of heaven and the sand of the sea". This massive population group was promised to Ephraim and Manasseh who were part of the Northern kingdom - the House of Israel.
Jews are a tiny worldwide minority.
The word is used to describe persons that make up and populate the Southern kingdom of Judah which consisted of two tribes from Israel - Judah and Benjamin. Hence, Judah/Jews.
The Celtic-Anglo-Saxon nations and the U.S.A. are the descendants of the dispersed 10 tribes. This is why ALL the promises given to Abraham are fulfilled in the British Empire/U.S.A.
. . . Jesus telling His disciples to take the gospel FIRST to the lost sheep of the House of Israel.
The gospel went first to these forsaken/not having mercy/dispersed 10 tribes.
As you seem to understand, the birthrights were not given, at some late date, to the Southern and/or Northern kingdoms. They were assigned to the houses of the sons of Jacob. Using your interpretation: one to the house of Joseph (Ephraim & Manasseh) and another to the house of Judah (Zerah & Pharez).
Thus, in your own words, "This massive population group was promised to Ephraim and Manasseh". Yet you are now talking about the Zaraites, of the house of Judah, dispersing all over Europe and Asia and propagating into huge populations. What does this have to do with the deported tribes of Israel, your "lost sheep"?
In summary then, if this theory is expected to be taken as anything more than mere conjecture:
1. You need to produce some record of, or credible support for, the assertion that a group of Zaraites left Egypt before the bondage. (And Diodorus Siculus' account of Danaos and his followers sailing to Greece doesn't work here.)
2. Since Numbers 26:20 clearly states that the family of Zerah (of Judah) left Egypt with the exodus group, you need to provide some indication that this group of Zaraites also employed the Red Hand emblem. Or at least provide some credible reason why they did not while the other two postulated groups of Zaraites allegedly did.
3. You need to provide some record showing the use of some credible form of the name of "Zaragossa" (Zaragosta, Zaragota) from before c. 15 B.C. when, at its founding as a Roman colony, it received the name of "Cesarauguta" in honor of the Emperor Caesar Augustus.
4. You need to provide some reason for why a group of Zaraites, of the house of Judah, attacking from the north, would be referred to by a term that you say is derived from "the house of Omri". Again, especially at a time when the "house of Omri" was being marched across the Euphrates.
5. And finally, you should clarify how the Zaraite's propagating all over the continent has anything to do with the promise that Ephraim and Manasseh would be "as the stars of heaven and the sand of the sea".
Take your time, read carefully, and I will await your response.
Amldohi
This message has been edited by Amlodhi, 08-11-2004 03:35 PM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 54 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-10-2004 11:34 PM Cold Foreign Object has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 64 by Cold Foreign Object, posted 08-13-2004 12:04 AM Amlodhi has replied

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