mjfloresta writes:
that there was no death pre-fall is indicated by the fact that death was a result OF the fall.
Pain would be the result of me banging my head against the wall, does this mean there was no pain in the world prior to this?
mjfloresta writes:
It is the assertion that there was death pre-fall that is scripturally un-supported
Where is is explicitly mentioned that there was NO death before the fall?