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Author Topic:   Did They Write About Jesus in the Law, the Prophets, and the Psalms?
Faith 
Suspended Member (Idle past 1475 days)
Posts: 35298
From: Nevada, USA
Joined: 10-06-2001


Message 299 of 305 (204435)
05-02-2005 9:02 PM
Reply to: Message 295 by purpledawn
05-02-2005 6:05 PM


Re: English Torah
I'm guessing that Faith would not accept the translation by the Jewish Publication Society.
Somebody already proposed a Jewish Bible and of course I wouldn't accept it. The Jews have an aggressively determined program to prove that "almah" does not mean "virgin" although it was Jewish translators of the Septuagint that made the connection in the first place.
14 Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
Some modern translations ahve this too. see Doctorbill's exchange with me. He tried to say all of them do, but he's wrong and I proved it.
What Faith fails to realize is that the modern translations have changed because the meaning of the word "virgin" has a different usage today than its earlier meaning.
Now THAT is really a screaming idiocy. It has always meant a literal sexually inexperienced young woman, but now it means something else than that??? As if what it NOW means has anything to do with what it meant THEN which is the point!!! If the words have changed then obvviously what is needed is today's word that means a sexually inexperienced young woman, not the opposite. What is the matter with you people???

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 Message 295 by purpledawn, posted 05-02-2005 6:05 PM purpledawn has not replied

Faith 
Suspended Member (Idle past 1475 days)
Posts: 35298
From: Nevada, USA
Joined: 10-06-2001


Message 300 of 305 (204439)
05-02-2005 9:10 PM
Reply to: Message 292 by purpledawn
05-02-2005 4:31 PM


Re: Finale on the almah parthenos virgin flap
As you have stated many times, none of the words means exclusively presexual. Therefore only the context can determine the intent of the author.
Please explain how the prophecy in Isaiah speaks of a presexual woman who is to conceive without human sperm.
I said I haven't studied it yet to know how the passage is structured, but I have the grace to believe honest teachers who have taught that it refers to the virgin conception and birth of Jesus Christ as well as something in Ahaz' time. Sorry you lack that grace.

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 Message 292 by purpledawn, posted 05-02-2005 4:31 PM purpledawn has not replied

Faith 
Suspended Member (Idle past 1475 days)
Posts: 35298
From: Nevada, USA
Joined: 10-06-2001


Message 303 of 305 (204488)
05-02-2005 10:44 PM
Reply to: Message 302 by doctrbill
05-02-2005 9:37 PM


Re: Finale ... on the virgin's flap.
I suspected that were a KJV Onlyist. Thanks for clearing that up.
Not really. Today's KJV is just as corrupted by the newer translational follies as the other translations. So far MOST of the corruptions have remained in the footnotes but not all. What is needed is a completely new translation done under the auspices of Church authorities based on the OLD Greek manuscripts rather than the new ones that underlie the newer translations. This is the best thinking on the subject in my opinion:
An orienting column on the subject:
Welcome credenda.org - Hostmonster.com
A debate between the editor and a defender of the modern translations:
Welcome credenda.org - Hostmonster.com
I am curious. Do you accept the Apocrypha as a valid inclusion in the sacred canon? I am hoping that you do actually. That would be the Purely Onlyistic thing to do.
No. I consider them interesting but not inspired and after reading through them once years ago I haven't gone back to them. Maccabees contains useful history though.

This message is a reply to:
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Replies to this message:
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