I don't find the "Cain's wife" objection to the bible to be anything major. It's easily refuted, as Jazzlover may have done.
So, that's what I think. Who cares who Cain's wife is? It's not like she existed anyway.
Oops, had a big thing about Cain's mark, but then I see that it was addressed in the article. Sort of.
Let me ask you this, Jazzlover - when you see someone read these lines:
quote:
Behold, thou hast driven me this day away from the ground; and from thy face I shall be hidden; and I shall be a fugitive and a wanderer on the earth, and whoever finds me will slay me."
And these lines:
quote:
And the LORD put a mark on Cain, lest any who came upon him should kill him.
quote:
Then Cain went away from the presence of the LORD, and dwelt in the land of Nod, east of Eden. 17 Cain knew his wife, and she conceived and bore Enoch; and he built a city, and called the name of the city after the name of his son, Enoch.
etc, which obviously suggest more people than just Adam's family, and they come away from that saying the opposite - that Adam's family were the only people - do you really think a
literal interpretation supports that view?
Don't get me wrong - Ken Ham's interpretation is a valid one. But it's not a literal one. Literally, the text implies more humans. To my eye, that implies that Genesis is not the origin story of all humans, but the origin story of the Hebrew people.
How do biblical literalists rationalize such non-literal interpretations?
[This message has been edited by crashfrog, 06-23-2003]