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EvC Forum ⇒ Science Forums ⇒ The Bible: Accuracy and Inerrancy ⇒

Homosexuality and the bible yet again

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Author Topic:   Homosexuality and the bible yet again
Buzsaw
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Message 15 of 23 (157466)
11-08-2004 10:17 PM 		Reply to: Message 1 by coffee_addict
11-07-2004 3:26 AM

why it's a sin.
​
Lam, what do you think Romans 1:26,27 means? Does it implicate homosexuality as a sin? It speaks of God giving up on people because of their "vile affections" and goes on to talk about women go changing their "natural use" and going against nature. It speaks also of menleaving the "natural use" of the woman and burning in lust one to another, men with men, in the context of lust. Sounds pretty condemnatory to me. What do you think it is saying and meaning?
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