Are any of these prophecies fulfilled by Jesus?

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I dont know why it is immediate? Was not the Jews forsaken of thier kings at the time of Jesus's life?

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For the same reason we put a roadsign shortly BEFORE the turning, not hundreds of miles AFTER it.A sign that something is going to happen is only useful if it happens shortly BEFORE it happens. Not hundreds of years later

I'll just say add that I've seen these calculations and they definitely involve some fiddling. And anyone who says that they point to the exact day Jesus died is deceived or lying (nobody KNOWS which year Jesus did in, so there's no way to tell, even if the calculations did work out without fiddling).Even worse is the fact that Daniel is quite definitely about events in the middle of the 2nd Century BC. (Daniel 8, for instance, rules out any possibility that it refers to the time of Jesus).Oh, and I can definitely understand why parts of the Old Testament make your eyes glaze over. Not all of it is that bad, though.

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Read 33 then read 34 again. 33 says when you see all these things that the coming of the son of man is near and the end is near. Then after all those signs come, "This generation shall not pass". Meaning the end will take place in a generation before Jesus's return.

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I'm not sure how someone could miss that if they read the entire chapter.

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If you read the entire chapter it's clear that these are the events leading up to the destruction of the Herodian Temple - which occurred in 70 AD. (Read verses 1-3)And I can't see how it's "clear" that it means some distant future generation rather than the generation living at the time. (In English, if some future generation were meant "that generation" would be the more usual wording, while "this generation" would mean the - then - present generation).Of course, Daniel 8 places the "End Times" in the period of the Diadochi kingdoms, the last of which (Ptolomaic Egypt) was annexed by Rome in 30 BC. Edited by PaulK, : No reason given.

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Jesus also fulfills this prophecy because both kings are destroyed long before Jesus is born.

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You mean that Jesus utterly FAILS to fulfil the prophecy because he was born long after both kings were destroyed.A sign has to occur before the event or it is useless.

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Actually no. Its just as likely that the prophecy was about something else that happens much later. You'll note that the prophecy says 'your enemies' instead of naming the two countries.

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The context makes it rather clear which enemies are meant. And then there's the rest of the prophecy to consider. Why does everyone seem to ignore everything after verse 16 ?