evolution of judaism

I've read it carefully and repeatedly, and they both have the same level of detail. Neither is more broad or more specific than the other. They also have two different chronologies.They're contradictory. That is the literal interpretation, and the only reasonable one. They're as contradictory as if I told you "I went shopping and then good a haircut" and then turned around and said "I got a haircut and then went shopping."To try to deny this is to deny the meaning and existence of the words laid before you. I guess that's the sort of mental gymnastics you wind up with if you're determined to substantiate Biblical inerrancy at all costs.

What, contradicted ourselves in the space of two sentences?Who are you, Dick Cheney? Read your Bible.Here's the relevant chronology from Gen 1:1) God makes plants.
2) God makes birds and sea creatures.
3) God makes land animals.
4) God makes Adam and Eve at the same time.And here's the relevant chronology from Gen 2:1) God makes Adam.
2) God makes plants directly in the garden, and indirectly in the rest of the world by supplying water.
3) God makes all animals at once in an attempt to create a helpmeet for Adam.
4) God makes Eve from Adam's rib.They're two different stories. Hell, if you'd bothered to read it, you'd see the part where the first story ends and the second rewinds and starts again:

quote:

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1 Thus the heavens and the earth were finished, and all the host of them. 2 And on the seventh day God finished his work which he had done, and he rested on the seventh day from all his work which he had done. 3 So God blessed the seventh day and hallowed it, because on it God rested from all his work which he had done in creation. 4 These are the generations of the heavens and the earth when they were created. In the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens...

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It's like a DVD on autorepeat, ending and starting up again. "And they lived happily ever after. Beep! Once upon a time..."

How can that be when they have the same amount of detail?Why is it that you must insert this extra-Biblical interpretation to wave away the contradiction? Whatever happened to just reading the text that was there?What would it take, I wonder, to substantiate to you that there was a contradiction in the Bible? Or, is every time I show two passages that contradict each other, you're response is going to be "it's just making the first part clearer.If I said "drinking is ok in moderation", and then I said "drinking is never ok", wouldn't you think I had contradicted myself? Why would you say that my second statement "clarifies" the first?We're getting off-topic here, so if you would, please reply in this thread.This message has been edited by crashfrog, 10-10-2004 12:16 PM