can we trust the book of Mormon?

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Jesus is Lucifer's spiritual brother. We too are Lucifer's spiritual brothers and sisters.

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Yes I have read the Book of Mormon.Nephi supposedly made the record in the language of his father, which consisted of the learning of the Jews and the language of the Egyptians. This is the only verse I saw using the word "lucifer" in the BOM. It is the exact same verse as used in the KJV and the only time the word "lucifer" is used in the KJV.The word "lucifer" is latin for morning star and wasn't used until the Bible was written in Latin which was completed about 400AD.The Greek version of the Bible wasn't written until about 250BC. The Greek for "morning star" is phosporos.According to the BOM those people left about 600BC. Greek and Latin weren't the languages of the area.Connecting the word "lucifer" with Satan or the devil was done in the time of Origen in AD.The original writers of the "gold plates" realistically wouldn't have connected the morning star with the devil and therefore would not have had Smith translate it as such, since Isaiah was refering to the planet Venus and the poem referred to the King of Babylon.2 Nephi Chapters 12-24 are equal to Isaiah 2-14 The words of Isaiah in the BOM are the same chapter and verse breaks as the KJV.The original Hebrew and Greek did not have chapters or verse divisions. Chapter divisions were started in 1214 and verse divisions appeared in 1551. The Jews did adopt these divisions, but not necessarily the same as the Christian Bible.Example: Isaiah 8, the last two verses A little too convenient that Smith's translation matches the KJV words, chapters, and breaks and not the Tanakh.Did Nephi take a copy of the Torah and Isaiah to the wilderness with him?

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A gentle answer turns away wrath, But a harsh word stirs up anger.

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Your lack of knowledge makes me doubt you read it. And if you did, you skimmed over it with a mindset to PROVE it's falseness, rather than open-mindedly absorb it.

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I read the BOM about a year ago, I didn't commit it to memory. Do not presume to know my frame of mind when reading the book just because I don't agree. I didn't read it with any agenda in mind. I just read the book.

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What is your source of information? I have researched this and have never found it before.

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I'm assuming you mean "Lucifer."The first step is understanding the Jewish view of Satan.
Who is Lucifer?Then compare the Hebrew Bible, the Greek Septuagint and the Latin Vulgate.

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As it says in the first book of Nephi, Nephi and his brethren were exhorted to retrieve the Original Plates of brass from Laban in Jerusalem.

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I haven't seen evidence that the Jews of 600BC or before referred to the Torah as the "five books of Moses."Even in the NT there is only one reference made to the book of Moses, singular. BTW, I'd appreciate it if you would address my comments concerning the fact that the wording, chapter breaks, and verses of the Isaiah quotes match the KJV and not the Hebrew Bible.

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A gentle answer turns away wrath, But a harsh word stirs up anger.

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You asume that becuase Nephi quotes Isahiahs controversial "Lucifer" statement that Nephi makes a connection between the Devil and the word Lucifer.

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No, my contention is that Nephi would not have used the word "lucifer" at all because it is a Latin word, which was not the language in Egypt, Israel, or Judah in 600BC.Where did the LDS get the impression that "Lucifer" was cast out of heaven and resides in hell, which you mentioned in Message 65?

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Well there's not a truckload of evidence to go from really, but Genises, Leviticus, Exodus, Deuteronomy, and Numbers are five books containing the teachings and history of Moses. Perhaps some archeaologist of the future will someday question our present day terms, saying, "I'm not aware of any references to the ancient people's Postal System as, 'snail-mail'." All of this is the most likely solution to this 'trouble of terms'.

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Just as World War I was not called World War I until after World War II started, it would be hard for the Jews to refer to the Torah as the five books of Moses if they weren't split into five books.The following are the ways that the Torah has been referred by the Jews.Hat Torah (the law)
Torah (law)
Sepher Hat Torah (book of the law)
Torath Mosheh (law of Moses)
Sepher Mosheh (book of Moses)
Sepher Torath Mosheh (book of the law of Moses)Very clearly they viewed it as one book.The Pentateuch is Greek, which was done after the exile.
Excerpt concerning Torah. The BOM makes it plural. This follows along with the chapter and verse breaks that you have yet to address.

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A gentle answer turns away wrath, But a harsh word stirs up anger.

Just a note so that your quotes actually show up as such. Use the [brackets] and not the (parentheses). Then your quotes will show up correctly and make it easier to read.

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No, my contention is that Nephi would not have used the word "lucifer" at all because it is a Latin word, which was not the language in Egypt, Israel, or Judah in 600BC.(/quote)

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LDSdude writes:

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Then where did Isaiah get it from?

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Isaiah did not use the word "lucifer." He used the word "heylel," which is Hebrew for "morning star." See Message 69 about when the word "lucifer" was first used.In the Latin Vulgate the word "lucifer" was used in Job 11:17, 38:32; Isaiah 14:12; and 2 Peter 1:19. The word "lucifer" was only retained and capitalized by the translators of the KJV in the Isaiah verse.

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Where did the LDS get the impression that "Lucifer" was cast out of heaven and resides in hell, which you mentioned in Message 65?

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LDSdude writes:

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Pure and simply, modern revealation from God.

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Revelation to who?

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Once again, the book's' of Moses is probably a simple 'slang' or disfunctioning adjective. The World War 1 is a bad comparison because before it was called World War 1, it was called the great war.

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You can do better than that. I already showed you that the Torah was not referred to as the "five books of Moses" by the Jews of 600 BC. Even the NT Jews didn't use it.Same as, if someone claims a letter is written prior to WWII but the Great War was referred to as WWI within the letter, then the letter wasn't written prior to WWII.

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About the verse breaks, when the BOM was first published it didn't contain verse separations. Those have since been added for organizational purposes. I don't believe Nephi had them.

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I did notice that. I guess Smith was fortunate that his translation so closely followed the KJV.Chapter breaks and verse numbers were added as well as changing some of the original wording. Which is interesting since no one has the original plates to check for accuracy. This is one verse that Smith's translation changed the meaning from the Bible itself.

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A gentle answer turns away wrath, But a harsh word stirs up anger.

Hey Arach,Would you believe that in over 40 years of Church life I had never heard of Paradise Lost until this forum?None of the churches I've been a part of promoted the tales of Satan/Devil.So I don't agree with the Christian view of Satan as a fallen angel; but I do understand the Hebrew use of the word in the OT.

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A gentle answer turns away wrath, But a harsh word stirs up anger.