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Author Topic:   Question.... (Processes of Logic)
DBlevins
Member (Idle past 4071 days)
Posts: 652
From: Puyallup, WA.
Joined: 02-04-2003


Message 40 of 210 (39625)
05-10-2003 3:15 PM
Reply to: Message 26 by Mister Pamboli
05-07-2003 3:49 AM


Re: Question...
Rrhain -
quote:
A little thought shows that it can not be the bacteria that mutated. If it were the bacteria that mutated, then they would be surrounded by K/4 bacteria that are immune to T4 phage. Thus, as soon as any of these K-type bacteria died, they'd be replaced with K/4 bacteria and we'd never see a plaque.
Would it be possible for the bacteria to mutate in such a way that it becomes vulnerable to the phage again through a different mutation or set of mutations so that it is once again vulnerable to a non-mutated phage? Is there any proof of such a thing happening? A reversion of vulnerablilty but due to a mutation of another codon or perhaps a mutation of the same codon or a mutation that shifts the codons which could cause the vulnerability to reappear? It seems possible, but I am still in the middle of studying biology, that if a mutation is possible one way it is possible the other? I am not sure how clear I am with the question but I would think that however slight the possibility of a mutation happening on the "same" gene or causing a vulnerability to reappear, it might just happen.
[This message has been edited by DBlevins, 05-10-2003]

This message is a reply to:
 Message 26 by Mister Pamboli, posted 05-07-2003 3:49 AM Mister Pamboli has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 43 by Rrhain, posted 05-11-2003 8:40 AM DBlevins has not replied

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