NotAHero gabbles:
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Righteous, in the context Peter uses, is meant to say that Lot had placed his faith into the Lord.
Which is apparently all it takes in your small mind (or in Peter's for that matter) for a coward to be "righteous". Such a coward can still pimp out his daughters to a mob to be gang-raped. Such a coward can still lie about those same daughters in order to sweeten the deal for the mob. Such a coward can still get drunk and impregnate his daughters. All it takes is faith in "the lord".
So as long as you have faith in the lord, you can do whatever the hell you want so long as you don't have gay sex? Is that it? Where in your precious bible does it say that?
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Apparently you missed the part where I gave the very definition of fornication and how it implicates homosexuality.
How could I possibly miss it? You've included it in virtually every post. The trouble is it doesn't make any sense. It's circular logic, which is no logic at all.
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Because homosexual marriage isn't specifically addressed, does NOT mean it is acceptable.
Nor does it mean it is unacceptable. The bible is silent on the subject of gay marriage. No matter how much you wish it weren't silent, it is!
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I have yet to put words in Jesus' mouth. In fact, I used scripture and simple logic in order to form a reasonable conclusion.
...to show what you believe Jesus thinks of homosexuality. But unfortunately, Jesus never spoke of homosexuality at all. Therefore you have to put words in his mouth in order to tell us what he thinks of it. Why is this so difficult for you to understand?
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If there were other suitable forms of marriage, I'm pretty sure that would have been in the Bible SOMEWHERE, don't you?
If the bible were inerrant perhaps. But, as has been amply established in many, many other threads, the bible is NOT inerrant.
The bible does say, however, that the only acceptable reason for divorce is a
woman's infidelity. That comes from Jesus own mouth in Matthew 19. Do you agree with that? What is a woman to do if her husband commits adultery? Just deal with it?
Do you believe, as Jesus says, that second marriages are adulterous?
On the subject of the pimping coward Lot impregnating his daughters, you observe:
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This was not Lot's doing, it was their doing.
Yes, according to the bible women are always at fault whenever something like this happens. I don't buy it. If Lot was sober enough to get a hard-on, he knew who he was sleeping with. Even if I accepted your stupid notion that he didn't know he was fucking his own daughters, he was still committing fornication, huh? But he's still a righteous coward, isn't he?
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We've been over this...this thread is about whether or not the Bible condemns homosexuality, period. If you want to start another debate, go ahead and do so, but let's stay on track here, ok?
Sorry, you don't get to limit the scope of the debate. If we are going to discuss what the bible says, it is perfect reasonable to also discuss whether the bible is morally correct in what it says (or doesn't say).