Hi, Rahvin.
Rahvin writes:
It's not just me, right? RAZD
did just finally agree that an absence of evidence can be evidence of absence? He
did just agree with something he's argued against for months?
I don't know: you see, my head has recently imploded, and I'm not sure I can tell what he's saying at all.
I feel like we're on the precipice of an infinite regress of sorts, and, any time now, a post is going to appear that says something like, "absence for a lack of an absence of evidence is evidence that there is no evidence for an absence of a lack of evidence."
I don't know: in the meantime, I'm just going to assume that the lack of evidence for food on my desk is reason enough to believe that I should go home for dinner now.
-Bluejay (a.k.a. Mantis, Thylacosmilus)
Darwin loves you.