Although probably not in English , but does that mean that he is just one of many Gods, but does not want his followers worshipping any others ... or is there some qualification that makes it clear that (biblically speaking) He is the only God in existence?
A quick re-read of Genesis and Exodus should point to the opposite.
If the Jewish people were convinced of a single God always, why did Abraham and Moses have to go to such lengths to show their respective people's the error of their polytheistic ways?
I'd have to question the omnipotent nature of the biblical God.
He floods the earth when he could have 'disappeared' mankind.
He has to rain plagues on Egypt to convince Pharoah to let the Isrealites go ... when he could have just made Pharoah do it, ot just zap them to their own land.
He couldn't even provide the Isrealites with their own lands they had to take Canaan by force.
Doesn't the 'sense' of the Bible, though, suggest that in the beginning the authors believed in the existence of a number of gods, and that towards the end of OT they believed in only one.
Doesn't that suggest that the bible is not the inerrant word of god, but the errant word of man.
The message may well be valid ... that doesn't mean that every word is the literal truth.