A disclaimer at your first link contains this statement:
Translations have strengths and weaknesses depending how faithfully and honestly they were translated.
I'd like to know how this is determined.
Variance between translations into the same language sometimes is owing to unintentional negligence or intentional bias.
If negligence and bias enters into it, how is inerrancy sustained? By definition it can't be.
At any rate, the question "What is Bible Inerrancy" can be partly answered thus: it is a reaction by certain Christians to what they viewed as a number of 19th century attacks on the reliability of scripture. One of those attacks was ToE, giving rise to the debate which is the basis of this forum. Another, equally important issue during the 19th century, when biblical inerrancy was first propounded as dogma, was the higher criticism of the bible. Higher criticism went beyond determining mere meaning of the words to considerations of authorship and accuracy in terms of science and history.
It therefore might be said that biblical inerrancy put the "reaction" in "reactionary".
Keep America Safe
AND Free!
™ Version 4.2
