An interesting question you pose Thor.
1. Why He?
He, is in line with the description ‘Father’. Given that the bible needed to be applicable to mankind, I would imagine that being gender specific, enables {wom}man to have an identifiable basis. That the bible was scribed and translated by males would seem to be indicative of the patriarchal perspective held at that time (I wonder if it has changed
).
Taking into account the biblical story though: God made the mate and gave similar physiological characteristics, to me that is indicative of a consistency of, ‘like’ (though man has 23 chromosones, and woman 22). Attributes are different though, so God had to have at his disposal both means of comparism. So it is feasible God is non gender specific, perhaps a hermaphrodite or intersex, if we were to assign something to Him. In regards to the patriarchal perspective as a whole, there is also another line of argument, based on the assignment of the sexual organs, but I will leave it out.
2. Could assigning a gender to God be considered blasphemy?
Your question leads me to wonder, blasphemy against whom?
If God inspired the book, and it was written in accordance with him, then it would be as He determined it to be. Therefore no blasphemy. If on the other hand, man wrote the book of his own volition, then he could surely not have blasphemed against God.
Either way one of the strongest foundations for a patriarchal world, that could ever have been conceived was adopted. If that was Gods intent, or mans alone we might never know.
Shaz