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Author | Topic: Economics: How much is something worth? | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
But by your definition it is perfectly possible for things which raise living standards and create wealth to have no worth. Absolutely: they don't have any Economic worth, even though they might have "worth" to the economy. But we all know Economics is bullshit anyways.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Here's what I don't get:
So you go to a shop and see an ipod for 300. Turns out it was fake and doesn't do anything and it ain't worth shit. Was it really worth 300 because you got tricked into paying that for it?
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Was it really worth 300 because you got tricked into paying that for it?
As far as I can tell, it was worth 300 to the fraudster. How much an authentic looking fake is worth to you really depends on your ethics. So as long as people keep passing the buck by tricking people, a fake useless iPod would actually be worth 300?
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member
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But we all know Economics is bullshit anyways.
That's not true. That's just the pop-culture economics you're thinking of. The kind of stuff in the news all the time. Real economics is an honest and sincere study of human behavior. Show me this real economics. Shouldn't that be called Economology then?
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Until you discover the fraud you believe you have an item worth $300 and that the shop has $300 of your money. Everything seems fair and your net worth hasn't changed. What I was getting at was a perceived issue with the definition of value being what someone is willing to pay for something. The problem I was seeing was when you were willing to pay for something, but its not what you think it is. So, should you really define the value of that thing as what was paid for it when afterwards you know that it really wasn't worth shit? But I guess the issue boils down to the willingness of the person. They wouldn't have been willing to pay that for it if they had known what it really was.
But once you discover the fraud the iPod has to be written off, probably 100%. Well not necessarily. That's what else I was getting at: You could just pass the buck and trick the next guy into buying it. Does it really have that value if you have to trick people into being willing to pay that much for it? And I guess I now realize that the answer is "no", because they weren't really willing to pay that much for the item, its just that they were tricked into thinking it was something else, and that something else is what they were willing to pay for, not the junk.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Isn't "worth to the economy" what is important in terms of wealth creation in the economy? Sure, but that's not something that can be measured and quantifed like Economic Value can.
If it is bullshit it is important bullshit. Because it is the basis upon which policy decisions which affect all our lives are made. Scary, huh?
Given that this thread follows hot on the heels of the Trickle Down Economics - Does It Work? thread and that Percy seems to be using this thread in order to justify his conclusions about who is responsible for wealth creation in that one...... Here's an issue that we didn't get a chance to resolve in the other thread, and it pertains to this topic: Let's say you come up with a worthy idea, but don't have the money to make it happen. How much is the guy who loans you the money that allows your idea to come to fruition contributing to the worth in this case? Without the money, your idea is worthless since it can't be realized. You don't seem to put much value on the people who invest in venture capital.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
If we are talking about wealth creation and who to attribute it to then Percy's definition of "worth" in this thread is simply inadequate to deal with that question. So which definition would work and how do you measure and quantify it?
Because it can only assign worth to that which is readily quantifiable. And whilst we all seem to agree that things like research, innovation, technological progress and increased productivity are essential components of wealth creation we can't quantify their effect in the way his rather narrow definition of "worth" demands. How do you account for the things that aren't quantifyable?
If on the other hand Percy is, in this thread, simply talking about some sort of bookkeeping notion of "worth" that is wholly quantifiable then I'm not sure what his point is. In the other thread, you were saying that the rich weren't contributing enough to the wealth creation, but you don't have any way of measuring that contribution. Too, your using Economic charts that use the definition that Percy does to evidence your position. It just doesn't add up.
CS writes: Let's say you come up with a worthy idea, but don't have the money to make it happen. How much is the guy who loans you the money that allows your idea to come to fruition contributing to the worth in this case? Without the money, your idea is worthless since it can't be realized. You don't seem to put much value on the people who invest in venture capital. Actually I put quite a lot of value in it. But I also put value in the idea. And I also put considerable value in the investment we all make in the infrastructure that allows the combination of the idea and the investment to flourish and create wealth. You were already going to invest in the infrastructure regardless of this idea. And there's no way to quanitfy how much value your investment has. How can you actually count that investment towards the contribution to the value of the idea? If the guy loaned you $100 to make your idea, and then you sold it for $200 and payed him back $110 dollars. The value of your idea was $90 to you. He contributed $100 to it, and it was worth $10 to him. It was worth $200 to the one that bought it from you. So how much value does the contribution of the society to the infrastructure have?
In the other thread we saw that it is the wealthiest who have reaped nearly all of the rewards of increased productivity over the last 30 years. My point there was simply that if they are receiving more wealth than they are responsible for creating then wealth is trickling up rather than down. But you have no way of measuring that, so how do you know? And how much of the wealth from the idea above was the guy who loaned the money responsible for creating? Without him, it would have been worth nothing because you couldn't realize it. Too the wealth that was created was measured using Percy's definition, so how can you use a different definition of wealth to determine the contribution to that definition?
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
It is the difference between the wealth that would exist without the unquantifiable in question (e.g. the development of a particular technology or idea) and the wealth that exists with it. In order to accurately quantify this we need duplicate identical economies on which we can run randomised double blind trials in order to eliminate other factors to find out the exact extent to which the thing in question has contributed to wealth creation. Which is obviously impossible in practise. So which definition would work and how do you measure and quantify it?
You can accept that something (e.g the development of a particular technology or idea) has contributed significantly to wealth creation without being able to quantify exactly how much can't you? I can, but the significance is going to be a guess.
The charts in question show that nearly all of the wealth gains over the last 30 years have gone to the richest 5% of the population in a way that they didn't before certain so called "trickle-down" policies were implemented. The chart was showing income, not wealth. The chart did not show the above.
The only way to reconcile the idea that this 5% have not received more wealth than they have created over the last 30 years is to conclude that the ideas, innovation and share of national infrastructure that we attribute to the other 95% of the population is worth very little. The income of the top 5% increased disproportionally, but the median income still rose. Everybody benefitted but the top 5% benefitted more. I don't see why the increases must be proportional to be consistent with TDE working.
The infrastructure in question is what makes the US (or UK) a first world country as opposed to a developing nation. There is a reason new technological developments and investments take place in developed nations. It is the shared legacy of wealth of the nation that developing nations lack. It is the infrastructure of the nation. It is the existence of this collective infrastructure that makes the successful origin, development and investment of an idea even possible. Educated, healthy workforce. People willing able to take the sort of risks that are essential to capitalistic entrepreneurism because there is a welfare system safety net which means failure doesn't result in destitution. The rule of law as a result of a functional justice system. Energy infrastructure. Communications infrastructure. Water infrastructure. Transport infrastructure. All these things are essential to wealth creation. And they are not the exclusive right of the top 5%. Yeah, and if Christopher Columbus didn't discover the new world then the infrastructure in question wouldn't even exist. But we don't pin all that contribution on him. The infrastructure is neither here nor there.
How can we quantify what contribution this past investment and infrastructure makes to the wealth creation of a nation? I have absolutely no idea. But I would estimate it as absolutely immense.. Wouldn't you? More immense than Columbus's contribution? I don't think so
More than enough to dispute the idea that the top 5% alone can lay claim to nearly all wealth creation in the US over the last 30 years. Well, how much did the guy who loaned you the money you needed to get your idea to come to fruition contribute? If you didn't get that loan, then your idea had a value of $0.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
You cannot quantify how much publicly funded research projects or education programmes or investments in transport infrastructure etc. etc. etc. have contributed to increased productivity over the last 30 years. But it just is not reasonable to think that these thing have had a negligible effect is it? Depends on what you're looking at. Is it reasonable to think that Columbus discovering the new world had a negligible effect?
We can see from the data that the results of increased productivity have almost all been received by the wealthiest. How so? Because their income rose so much? Are you sure that really shows what you think it does?
So I am simply saying that unless their contribution to productivity is greater than the share of it they receive wealth has trickled up rather than down. But we haven't determined how much they've contributed. How much did the guy who loaned you the money to get your idea realized contribute?
If the wealthy are receiving more wealth than they are creating what is it that is trickling down? The wealth they are not receiving. The median income did rise too.
Well you can start by not conflating price with worth in terms of how much something contributes to increased productivity. Well that doesn't answer the question, but regardless, I don't think I've done that anyways.
That would be a first step here..... Okay. Consider it done. What's the next step? I said that the proceeds of increased productivity have gone to the wealthiest. The graph definitely does show that. Is income the only procede of increased productivity? Edited by Catholic Scientist, : No reason given.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
And how would you have the weather be in your fantasy world?
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Free access to resources is a fantasy.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Many resources are freely accessible: oxygen, sunlight, friendship. What does that have to do with this?
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Are you just conflating different definitions of "value"?
quote: Value - Wikipedia(ethics)
quote: Value - Wikipedia(economics)
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
It has to do with your claim that I live in a fantasy world because I believe there are such things as freely accessible resources. There's more to it than that... You're just isolating your claim from any context so you can believe that you were right about something. If you follow the exchange, you can see that you're not really making sense:
So I am simply saying that unless their contribution to productivity is greater than the share of it they receive wealth has trickled up rather than down.
But we haven't determined how much they've contributed. How much did the guy who loaned you the money to get your idea realized contribute? Private ownership is always an obstacle to public wealth creation. Always. Not every resource is owned and sold, ya know, nor should they be. The fact that freely accessible resources exist in this very worldthe one we all live indemonstrates quite clearly that your claim is nonsense and that my 'fantasy' is indeed quite real. Unless you're actually claiming that owners of capital are blockades to your access to oxygen, sunlight, and friends. People having money isn't the reason you don't have friends, Jon People having money doesn't blockade you from sunlight and air. The fact that you're not blockaded from sunlight and air doesn't mean that you are contributing to wealth.
Nested Quotes Alert! Please edit wiser Edited by AdminPhat, : phat-o-gram
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
You never did show me the Real EconomicsTM...
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