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Author Topic:   English, gender and God
Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 113 of 175 (40851)
05-21-2003 3:27 AM
Reply to: Message 101 by crashfrog
05-19-2003 7:26 PM


crashfrog responds to me:
quote:
quote:
You, yourself, used "man" in the neuter. That would appear to me, at least, that you have some sort of understanding that words like "he" and "man" have neuter meanings, that context is an indicator of when those words are being used in the neuter and when they are being used in the masculine, and that other people are aware of those meanings and distinctions.
Actually it's a sexist habit that I'm not proud of, but habits are hard to change since they're not deliberate.
So you're saying that when you said that "science leads great men behind" (or words to that effect...I'm too lazy to go look it up), you were actually thinking of males and not of all scientists including the likes of Marie Curie and Rosalind Franklin? I don't deny your wish to be as clear as possible in your speech that you do mean everybody who works in science regardless of sex, but my personal default opinion of you is that you have internalized that attitude (scientists come in all sexes) and thus your use of "men" in the above statement was a use of it in the neuter, which is a recognized definition, though one that is falling out of favor.
quote:
I have an understanding that, while "he" and "man" may have a neuter usage on the surface, they rarely communicate a neuter meaning
Even though you meant such a neuter meaning and I picked that meaning up without even considering the possibility that you meant something else?
quote:
Sometimes, however, I'm typing so fast it's a pain to go back and fix my own usage. Not much of an excuse but there it is.
But I'm saying you don't need an excuse. You understood what you meant, I understood what you meant. How can there be a claim of sexism when you and I both had an image of all scientists regardless of sex?
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Whether or not you believe him is irrelevant. Paul has his beliefs and we should expect him to behave in accordance with those beliefs.
But isn't it reasonable to expect him to at the very least entertain beliefs different than his own?
No. Not when it comes to something that he thinks he knows for certain.
By this logic, it is "reasonable...to at the ery least entertain" intelligent design in a science class simply because there are people who think it's science. Well, no, it isn't reasonable. It is reasonable to talk about it in a different kind of discussion (What is science? Do the processes involved in intelligent design meet the criteria of science?), but given a premise as to what science is, it is insufficient to accept intelligent design as equivalent to evolution just because somebody says so.
If you want to debate the relation of god and gender and the process by which Paul concluded that god is male, go right ahead.
But to insist that Paul accept your conclusion simply because you have a conclusion that differs from his is beyond the pale.
Instead, the onus is on you to recognize the fact that Paul's opinion differs from yours and react accordingly.
And that means not fling charges of sexism at the language simply because Paul is insisting on "he" to refer to god.
As I mentioned elsewhere: When you do an indirect proof, you start with a premise that you are eventually going to show to be false. When you reach the contradiction, you don't fault any of the intervening steps between the premise and the conclusion. Why? Because all the intervening steps are logical. Instead, it is the premise that is considered at fault. You don't whine about how the intervening steps should have considered this other premise. They shouldn't have because that other premise is irrelevant.
Paul seems to think that god is male. While we might wish that he be polite about his reactions to people who disagree with him, it is unreasonable to insist he change his manner of expression in order to accomodate those other opinions, especially when his manner of expression is perfectly logical given his personal opinion.
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Instead of rejecting them without argument?
That's not what I'm saying. I'm saying you've misplaced the argument. The problem is not that Paul is being sexist by using "he" to refer to god. And it certainly isn't a problem with the language that Paul used "he" to refer to god.
If there is a problem, it has to do with the conclusion Paul has made that god is male. Given that Paul thinks god is male, we should expect him to use "he" to refer to god and to react in some manner to those who use "she" to refer to god. I am not defending the specifics of Paul's reaction. I am simply saying there is no evidence that it was sexist.
If someone were to use "she" to refer to Mr. Einstein, would it be inappropriate to react to it? Should we defer to that person's opinion and simply accept that "all opinions are valid"?
Or is it possible that some opinions are simply wrong?
quote:
Or, as Schraf did, articulate the possibility that his beliefs are not concious choices but simply habits ingrained in language?
In other words, Paul is a lazy thinker. Paul doesn't know what he really thinks about god. Rather than engage him in a discussion about why he is concluding that god is male, simply jump to the end and refuse to listen to his justification since you know he has none.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 101 by crashfrog, posted 05-19-2003 7:26 PM crashfrog has not replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 114 of 175 (40852)
05-21-2003 3:46 AM
Reply to: Message 102 by Mister Pamboli
05-19-2003 8:34 PM


Mister Pamboli responds to me:
quote:
quote:
What I am saying is that given Paul's opinion that god is male, then it is not unusual to hear him refer to god as "he" nor is it sexist for him to do so.
Actually, there was no objection whatsoever to Paul's use of a pronoun - it was Paul's objection to my use that was commented on.
And what pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein?
I don't recall seeing anywhere in any of the responses to Paul any sort of theological commentary about the nature of god, why Paul's specific path toward theological knowledge is flawed, and how that specifically resulted in a flawed conclusion that god is male.
It was simply asserted that there was sexism involved. And not only that, but that the sexism was in the language...as if to refer to males as "he" is a sexist thing to do.
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I continually ask and never get an answer, what pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein?
You have been answered fully and in some detail by me, at least. It is still beside the point.
Only because you don't like where the question leads.
If it isn't sexist to refer to Mr. Einstein as "he," how can it be sexist to refer to Mr. God as "he"?
quote:
The relevant questions would be more like If it is clear that two people hold different views about Einstein's gender,
There is some ambiguity in "Mr. Einstein" being something other than male?
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what should the reaction of one of them be to the other's usage,
And where does sexism enter into it?
Are you saying that it is impossible to have a theological argument that concludes that god is male? Every single theology no matter what necessarily results in the conclusion that god is something other than strictly male?
Again, this isn't saying Paul wasn't rude in rolling his eyes.
This is questioning the determination of sexism given absolutely no investigation into Paul's theology.
quote:
and, if that reaction should be critical, how should the other party, in turn, react.
By accusing sexism?
You really can't seem to understand the concept of "sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander" in this instance, can you?
Did you think it was rude of Paul to roll his eyes?
Why? What sort of signals were you inferring from his action? I gave one possible one: He thought you were playing games. But rather than do some sort of investigation as to your motives behind using "she" to refer to god, he jumped to a conclusion and ended up behaving poorly.
Now then, what did you think would be the response to an accusation of sexism in return?
Again, there is no investigaton as to Paul's motives behind rolling his eyes. Schrafinator merely jumped to a conclusion and she, too, ended up behaving poorly.
Paul made an assumption about your motives. Schraf made an assumption about Paul's motives.
Is there any wonder that there is a problem here?
And even more importantly, isn't schraf's mistake just as inappropriate as Paul's? Paul can't possibly have a logical reason to conclude that god is, indeed, male...it must be sexism, right?
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I appreciate you might prefer to tackle a reduced subset of these, but unfortunately the tack you are taking is simplistic rather than simplified.
No, the problem is not a simplistic attitude on my part.
Instead, it is a hypocritical attitude on your part. Schraf bears no responsibility for her assumption into Paul's motives, but Paul is completely guilty for his assumption into yours. And why? Because you disagree with Paul's conclusion. Not that you have provided any indication as to why Paul is wrong, he just is and therefore he deserves to be chastised.
But Paul and schraf both screwed up in precisely the same way. Paul owes you an apology and schraf owes Paul one, too.
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I am simply pointing out that we should not be surprised by a person who thinks of god as male having some sort of reaction to seeing god referred to as "she."
I'm sure crash, schraf and I were not surprised.
So why the charge of sexism?
What pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein?
quote:
We kinda expect it due to the ingrained sexism of the language,
It's sexist to refer to males as "he"? Really?
Then what pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein?
quote:
as we see it's effects,
What effect is there in referring to males as "he"?
Be specific.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 102 by Mister Pamboli, posted 05-19-2003 8:34 PM Mister Pamboli has not replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 115 of 175 (40862)
05-21-2003 4:32 AM
Reply to: Message 103 by Mister Pamboli
05-19-2003 9:13 PM


Mister Pamboli responds to me:
quote:
quote:
Paul thinks god is male. Therefore, where is the sexism in then calling god "he"?
No sexism in that - but sexism in criticising my usage of She
Why? God is male, right? Remember, Paul thinks god is male.
Therefore, what pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein?
Since when is it sexist to point out that "she" is the wrong pronoun to use to refer to males?
quote:
quote:
How is it sexist to refer to males as "he"? And to react when those refer to males as "she"?
It depends on the reaction, and it depends on the extent to which the user of he is confident of the maleness of the referent, or aware of differing views of the gender of the referrent.
Why? If something is male, how can it be sexist to correct people who refer to the male as "she"?
Oh, I handily admit that one can be rude in that correction, but if something actually is male, by what criteria is there a claim of sexism?
You haven't offered any reasoning as to why Paul's theological conclusion is wrong. Therefore, why on earth should he accomodate you when you are, in his mind, so clearly wrong?
We don't accept intelligent design as science, correct? Those who advocate for intelligent design haven't shown us any justification as to why ID should be considered a science, correct? Then why on earth should we accomodate it as a science when, in our minds, it is so clearly wrong to do so?
Oh, we might be rude in our explanation as to why ID isn't a science, but if our justification is specifically grounded in argumentation such as "Science is defined by traits a, b, and c, processes x, y, and z, etc. and ID fails to have trait b and processes x and z, ergo it is not a science," then our response is valid and we do not have to entertain those who simply retort, "You atheist." They need to do more than that. They either need to show how our definition of science is insufficient or they need to show how our analysis of ID as not meeting the criteria of science is flawed. Simply accusing us of being atheists doesn't cut it.
quote:
If the reaction was It's interesting that you say She. Can you tell me why? there would be no issue.
So you're saying the problem isn't that Paul was being sexist. It's that he was being rude.
Do I need to remind you yet again that I'm not defending Paul's behaviour?
quote:
Let's rephrase your question: How is it sexist to refer to what you believe to be males as "he"? And to react negatively when others refer to what you believe to be male as "she"? Doesn't appear quite so reasonable now does it?
Actually, it appears just as reasonable. It is not sexist to refer to what you believe to be male as "he" nor is it sexist to react negatively when others refer to what you believe to be male as "she."
What else would you have one do?
If you truly, without a shadow of a doubt, know that it's male and someone else comes along and calls it "she," where is the sexism in pointing out the error?
Oh, one can be rude in pointing out the error, such as by assuming the person calling it "she" is playing some sort of game, but where is the sexism in it?
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And then, of course, there is the chosen form of criticism: an eye-roll.
That's being rude.
How is it being sexist?
quote:
There is no OED of body language, but I would be surprised if many here disagreed that an eye-roll in the context it was used implies a prior knowledge of the issue under contention, and it's contentiousness.
But does that necessarily indicate it to be sexist?
Are you saying it is impossible to have a theological certainty that god is male?
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Oh, and by the way...I did answer the question. Mister Pamboli asked me a very similar question quite directly and I gave him a direct answer, indicating the specific pronouns to be used.
PronounS.
SPECIFIC
That's the problem that we're having. You're hung up on the fact that I gave you two.
I'm hung up on the fact that you haven't given me anything specific.
I'm looking for a specific word. You responded with a "whatever is preferred," but that doesn't tell us what is preferred.
I gave you specifics.
Please do me the courtesy of responding in kind.
Be specific.
What pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein?
quote:
You couldn't answer with one, but had to contextualise the response. Now why was that?
As I mentioned in my response, it is because I am of the opinion that the question lies in the person's perception and without a clear indication as to what that perception is, there will be multiple answers.
However, you will note that my answers resulted in a single pronoun for each perception and actually included the actual pronoun. I didn't wimp out with "whatever is preferred." I took a stand and named names. I used the actual words I had in mind.
Now, will you please do me the favor and respond in kind?
What pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein.
No, not "Einstein." "Mr. Einstein."
quote:
Lack of honesty? Lack of integrity? Lack of courage? Or was it not appropriate to give a single pronoun? Perhaps the example could not be reduced to the simplistic level of your Einstein example?
That last one.
But seeing as my example is quite simple, or so I seem to think, perhaps you could do me the favor of answering it.
Be specific. If you think that more than one pronoun is being used, then by all means explain why, but I want to know what the pronouns are...unless you are of the opinion that it is ok to use any combination of syllables, including what would generally be considered nonsense by most speakers of English. For example, you would suggest one use "beetaratagang" as the pronoun if one so desired.
quote:
You are still trying to reduce this to a simplistic issue.
And you are still refusing to answer the question.
Why not let me drive and see where we go?
quote:
Crashfrog, at the very least, has the intellectual integrity not to oversimplify an issue, nor to be browbeaten into taking a position that could be used to mislead others who may not follow the thread closely.
No, you and crashfrog lack the integrity to answer an honest question sincerely asked.
Is there a question you have asked that I didn't answer? If there is, please let me know what it is so that I can rectify the situation. I have no problems letting you direct your points.
Why do you refuse to extend me the same courtesy?
Why not let me drive and see where we go?
What pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein?
No, not "Einstein." "Mr. Einstein."
quote:
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Rhhain: where is the sexism in his statement that refers to god as "he" and finds the use of "she" to be incorrect?
crash: The sexism is in his refusal to grant a difference of opinion about god's gender anything more than a summary dismissal via eye-rolling.
Rhhain: You mean cries of sexism are to be honored above reality? We really ought to refer to Mr. Einstein as "he or she"?
I cannot follow your reasoning here. What do you mean by honored above reality?
Would you agree or disagree that Paul is certain in his beliefs about god?
If it is agreed that Paul is certain in his beliefs, would that not necessarily mean that, in Paul's mind, it is a reality that god is male?
Therefore, Paul should sublimate reality to your potential for being offended?
Two and two equals four, not five. You can whine and moan all you want about it, claim that you have an alternative mathematics that allows it to be five, but you know what, you're wrong. You're simply wrong. Reality trumps your opinion and in reality, two and two are four. If you're going to make a claim otherwise, you had better show it in reality rather than just assert it because reality is not beholden to your whim.
That is the respect that I am giving to Paul: He is sincere in his beliefs and knows precisely what they are.
Therefore, it is insufficient to simply declare him to be wrong without evidence.
And it is extremely rude to make a claim of sexism simply because he is sincere in those beliefs.
Similarly, I have the same respect for you: You are sincere in your beliefs and know precisely what they are.
Therefore, it is insufficient to simply declare you to be wrong without evidence.
And it is extremely rude to make a claim of game-playing simply because you are sincere in those beliefs.
Why? Because nobody has actually given any justification as to why the other is wrong. It's simply been declared to be so as if it were obvious.
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What is the reality above which crash is honouring a cry of sexism?
That god is male.
Where is your evidence that Paul is wrong? No, not that you are right...that Paul is wrong.
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What on earth has your Einstein example to do with this?
Einstein is male, is he not? If not, why not?
God is male, is he not? If not, why not?
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 103 by Mister Pamboli, posted 05-19-2003 9:13 PM Mister Pamboli has not replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 117 of 175 (40869)
05-21-2003 5:35 AM
Reply to: Message 110 by Mister Pamboli
05-21-2003 1:27 AM


Mister Pamboli responds to me:
quote:
quote:
Since false premises can lead to any conclusion, it is important to point them out lest we spend a lot of time going down an unjustified path.
Ar you sure you meant to say that? False premises lead nowhere on their own. Only arguments move from one proposition to another.
Yes, I am sure I meant to say that. Are you simply being obstinate? You see, a premise is something that has a path coming off it, otherwise it is simply a statement. That path goes somewhere. Therefore, since the premise is at the lead, it "leads" to where the path goes. It is the metaphor that is used to describe the process of going from premise to conclusion: The premise "leads" the way.
If you're going to be saying that the logic process by which one walks the path from the premise to the conclusion is not the same as the premise, itself, I will agree with you, but I will wonder if you are playing games.
Are you?
quote:
quote:
There is a difference between the concept that a woman can't be a surgeon and a man can't be a nurse and the concept that the language prevents one from saying that a surgeon is female and a nurse is male.
That is, just because many people find it difficult to talk of nursing without using feminine pronouns doesn't mean the language is forcing you to use feminine pronouns. If there were a linguistic rule of nurses being "she," then we might have a claim of "bias in the language." But as there isn't, it ain't.
That's true. Except that you seemed to think earlier that words have a certain meaning in reality which is separate from usage.
Ad in a sense, they do.
quote:
In which case, does not nurse mean in reality a woman who gives suck to a child?
Logical error: Equivocation.
We seem to have switched from "nurse" meaning "one who gives care, especially one who does so under the supervision of a physician" to "nurse" meaning "one who breastfeeds."
I agree that I did not specifically mention the former definition, but it seemed clear from context as the word "nurse" was contrasted with "surgeon" rather than "absent parent." Therefore, it would seem to be that the contrast was of various positions in a medical facility rather than the ability to lactate.
Again, I am wondering if you are simply playing games.
quote:
Of course, one may argue that usage has removed that bias and moved on from that meaning, with which I would agree.
No, "nurse" still means breastfeeding and one will still hear references to a "wet nurse."
But seeing as how the context in my statement was not in reference to lactation but rather to social concepts such as "Men are doctors, women are nurses," I am wondering if you are deliberately being obtuse.
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There are many times when a dictionary is proscriptive.
Not in English.
You mean people don't go to dictionaries to look up the meaning of words as if they were proscriptive?
It is never appropriate to say, "You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means"? After all, how could one possibly justify that statement? Obviously the person using the word thinks it means what he thinks it means.
We go to dictionaries to verify spelling all the time. They're/their/there are commonly interchanged and it is an error to do so. "Look it up," as many people say, and you'll see why.
quote:
Maybe in French, where the Academie attempts to rule what constitutes correct French.
Oh, I agree that other languages are much more formal about the process, but let us not forget how people actually use dictionaries.
Like it or not, linguists are not the only ones who look up words in a dictionary. People who actally use the dictionary will often consider it a proscriptive text. The reason why we so often say that dictionaries are descriptive, not proscriptive, is precisely because people actually use dictionaries as proscriptive texts.
You may have made a screwdriver and sincerely intended it to be a screwdriver, but it's an awl when I start punching holes in leather with it. At the very least, I am using it as an awl.
quote:
The Oxford has never pretended to more than description.
I never said they did.
But just because the Oxford doesn't want to be more than description doesn't mean it won't get used as more than description.
And haven't we all agreed that the actual users wield tremendous power?
Take, as an example, the word "brung" as the past and past participle of the verb "bring." Lots of people use it. But I'm looking in the dictionary and I can't seem to find it. Instead, it says the word is "brought."
A very significant number of people who speak English will take this as indicative that "'brung' isn't a word," as they might say, and that "brung" is wrong.
No matter how much the publishers of the dictionary want the book to be a description, not a proscription, people are using it as a proscription.
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... there are times when a person is simply wrong in what was said. While the person may think that what was said is indicative of what was meant, there are times when it simply doesn't.
But your examples, reasonable as they are, are of individual usages, not of usages shared amongst a community of users.
So?
We're back to my question that is seemingly so difficult to answer:
What pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein?
I would dare say that the overwhelming majority of speakers of English would agree on the specific pronoun.
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English insists that negation requires a "not" or a derivative in there somewhere ... No negation in the structure of the utterance, no negation in the meaning of the utterance.
I like anchovies? I like them like s**t.
Hmmm...seems like you got the "derivative in there somewhere." It's an implication...negation of pleasure from s**t, ergo the equivalence of pleasure between anchovies and s**t results in the negation of pleasure from s**t.
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There is a structure of the language that exists outside its speakers.
In what does it exist? What is its mode? How is it manifested?
In the same places, modes, and methods of manifestation that other abstract notions like mathematics exist.
In essence, the language acquires a life of its own. How many times have we heard the old saw, "'Ain't' ain't a word and I ain't gonna use it"? It sums it all up: There is a recognition that there is some sort of abstract, official, "The Way Things Are Supposed to Be" (C) attitude and a realization that it doesn't mean diddly since the language is a tool of the users.
Doublethink, I know, but I don't have a problem with that.
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I am saying those patterns exist, even if only in the abstract: We all agree that those are the rules and that if you break them, you aren't saying what you mean to say.
But you also seem to saying that these patterns can change.
Yes.
So?
In the original rules of Monopoly, there is no rule that all the fines imposed from Chance, Community Chest, Property Tax, and Luxury Tax get put on the Free Parking space and whoever lands there gets whatever money happens to be there at the time. However, so many people play the game this way that it's made it into the rules as an "alternative."
Rules change, but while they exist, they are rules.
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The issue at hand is how users should react to usages which are in flux or appear to be in flux.
I seem to be saying that it is inappropriate to jump to accusations as a first response.
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How are we to know, for example, whether a usage is wrong (as you might say) or whether it is simply shifting its meaning.
All sorts of ways. Ask the speaker to clarify, look the words up in a dictionary, compare your reaction to others who hear the same thing, all of the above, other possibilities, too.
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Perhaps Vizzini's overworked inconceivable is taking on a meaning which Inigo is powerless to prevent?
Nah. Vizzini just keeps underestimating the Man in Black.
It's foreshadowing, after all. A battle of wits to the death.
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How are we to decide if it is Inigo or Vizzini who is wrong?
Context helps. What is the apparent meaning behind Vizzini's outburst? It appears to be emotion and incredulity. Somehow the Man in Black is doing something that cannot be done.
And yet, since he can do it, the problem would seem to be that Vizzini is misspeaking. Perhaps he should say, "Inconceivable to me." Ah, but to do that would indicate that there is someone who can outthink him and that, too, is inconceivable.
And the final straw that Vizzini is the one making the mistake? His "inconceivable" notion is the death of him. If he were right, he'd still be alive.
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But here's the thing: You were right. It doesn't matter how much a person may complain that he thinks the word is derived from "apologize." He's wrong. It doesn't mean that. No matter how much he can complain about the usage, he's wrong.
Now you seem to be confusing etymology and meaning - an oversight?
No. I'm pointing out that there is a reality involved: The word is not derived that way.
And there is a reality to usage, too, including definition.
If dictionaries are descriptive, not proscriptive, then the definitions we find in there must mean that there are people out there, and a not insignificant number at that, who use the word in that way. Therefore, to complain that a word is being used in that way when we can see from the descriptive source that plenty of people do use it that way is to be a bit disingenuous.
And on the flip side, just because a single person uses a word in a certain way doesn't mean the word really means that. For a significant number of people, you could get them to agree with you that it doesn't mean that by showing them the dictionary and pointing out that the definition isn't there. Whether that will change their speech patterns or not is something to be seen...depending on the person, the context, and other factors, the person may decide to shift his speech to match the dictionary or he may continue to use it because he happens to like it (I'm thinking of words like "absotively" and "posilutely"...people know those "aren't real words," but they use them anyway because they like them.)
quote:
Or do you think nurse really means a breastfeeding woman.
I think in certain contexts, it does. As a contrasting word to "surgeon," most likely not. But in a phrase such as, "She was my wet nurse," then it most likely does.
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Why is it we don't hear people complaining nearly as much about the need for a "you, general" pronoun to contrast with the "you, specific" pronoun?
Because they can use forms such as y'all or youse? Or because they can use simple circumlocutions - such as all of you.
No, that's make a distinction between singular and plural as well as throwing in accent. I mean a distinction between the general case and the specific case. Those times when you have to clarify, "When I say 'you,' I don't mean you, specifically."
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People often write in the second person as a generalized concept, and yet we (and here I'm using the first person as a generalized concept) rarely get confused as to which is which. And if there is confusion, a clarification is requested and made and we move on without people making accusations of "getting personal."
Yes I agree. Paul should have done exactly that - sought clarification and we could have moved on.
But similarly, schraf should have done exactly that, too: Sought clarification rather and we could have moved on.
Instead, she cried sexism.
If Paul's eye-rolling was wrong, then schraf's accusation was wrong, too.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 110 by Mister Pamboli, posted 05-21-2003 1:27 AM Mister Pamboli has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 121 by Mister Pamboli, posted 05-21-2003 1:30 PM Rrhain has replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 118 of 175 (40871)
05-21-2003 6:13 AM
Reply to: Message 116 by crashfrog
05-21-2003 4:35 AM


crashfrog responds to me:
quote:
For instance, if you referred to god as female, and I responded with something like "You're an idiot, of course god is male because only males should be in authority", you would agree that is sexist, right? No matter how earnestly I might hold that belief?
Yes, but not because you used "he" to refer to god. In other words, the language had nothing to do with it. It's sexist because there is the attitude that being female is somehow less than being male and god, as this wonderful being, couldn't possibly be female because that would make him all icky poo or something.
But remember schrafintor's statement: The language was sexist if one referred to god as male.
Remember, I am not defending Paul. His eyeroll may very well be rooted in a sexist attitude, but nothing schraf said justified it. She went on about the language rather than theological attitude.
If you want to argue with Paul about why he thinks god is male and possibly expose some sexist trains of thought, be my guest.
But the fact that Paul refers to god as "he" and "corrects" those who call god "she" is not sufficient to justify a claim of sexism.
All it means is that it appears that Paul is sincere...at the very least he's consistent and insistent.
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Quite frankly I'm of the opinion that Paul's conception of a male god, which obviously he holds to the point of ridicule of opposing positions, amounts to a continuation of a legacy of sexism.
God can't be male? It is impossible to have a theology where god just happens to be male not because there is anything better about being male but just that he is?
Or is it sufficient to conclude, Christian -> male god -> sexist?
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No matter how much he may believe that god's gender is male, it's simply the result of ingrained male-centeredness in his religious traditions.
And you know Paul's mind well enough to justify that?
Christian -> male god -> sexist? No matter what?
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Schraf and Mr. P may disagree; I admit it's an extreme position. But I just thought I'd lay my cards out on the table. Now, do you see why I don't think Einstein's gender is germaine?
Yes:
You refuse to grant Paul the respect of being sincere.
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It's one thing to know the gender of a person (especially by their own report). It's quite another to infer their gender from their actions and qualities.
According to the New Testament, which is supposed to have some sort of direct connection to god somehow, god is constantly referred to as male.
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It would be sexist if I assumed Einstein (in the absence of any other information about him) was male simply because he was a great scientist.
Agreed. But I don't think I ever attempted to say that Mr. Einstein was male because of his occupation.
Nor do I think you can find anything in the New Testament that says god is male because of his righteousness.
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I think that's what Paul is doing with god - assuming masculinity not from god's own words but from god's actions and position of authority.
Why? What evidence do you have of this? Have you asked him? Has he said something of which I am not aware?
I don't deny to you that many people have precisely that history: They've always been taught that god is male, especially in an atmosphere that there is something better about being male, and thus have internalized that sexism.
But until you specifically ask Paul or show a specific statement from him that indicates such, it is inappropriate and simply rude to make accusations of sexism.
Paul shouldn't have rolled his eyes. It was indicative of him jumping to a conclusion.
But by the same token, schraf shouldn't have cried sexism. It was indicative of her jumping to a conclusion.
She might be right, but nothing she said justified it.
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So I guess the question is not "What pronoun would I use for Mr. Einstein?" but rather "why would I use that pronoun?" If I'm inferring gender from evidence that has nothing to do with gender (beyond our stereotypes), that's sexism.
Is there some indication that I am asking you to infer sex from anything other than sex?
Let's remember the context in which the question is asked, for if you remove the context, the question becomes ambiguous.
Paul, coming from a premise that god is male, uses "he" to refer to god and rolls his eyes when MP refers to god as "she." Schrafinator then makes a claim of sexism in the language inherent in Paul's comments.
Oh really? Well, what pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein?
Since nobody mentioned anything about the occupation of Mr. Einstein, one has to wonder what that has to do with anything. Wouldn't the answer to the question of why that pronoun be something like, "It's Mr. Einstein, which is a reasonable indicator that Mr. Einstein is male and thus, the appropriate pronoun to use is 'he'"?
Yes, it's an assumption that the Mr. honorific is valid, but that's my point: Paul is coming from that assumption. If you want to question the results, the problem is not the logic that got to the results but the leading assumption. It may absolutely be a sexist attitude that fed us the statement of "Mr. Einstein," but given that all we have at the moment is the simple statement of "Mr. Einstein," why the jump to sexism? Surely it is inappropriate to say that we should treat Einstein as some sort of transcendant-gendered being simply because so many people use Einstein as a model of what being a scientist is and we don't want to discourage the idea of women in science, isn't it?
Again, it could very well be sexism that leads Paul to conclude that god is male, but it is not his use of "he" to refer to god nor his insistence that god be referred to as "he" instead of "she" that is sexist. If we grant Paul the respect of being sincere in his beliefs, then that is what we should expect (though we would prefer he not be rude about it).
For example, if you were to refer to god as "she" and I were to respond, "You're an idiot. Of course god is male because it says so here in the Bible in this particular verse where Jesus refers to god as his father and Mary as his mother, this other verse where it talks about the spirit of god moving over Mary and causing her to conceive, and all these other verses, etc., etc." then we can't really claim I'm being sexist. I'm certainly being rude as there was no call for me to say, "You're an idiot," but seeing as how I am using a theological source of people who supposedly have a direct line to god describing god as male, it isn't sexism. And for me to "correct" you on your terminology isn't sexism in and of itself.
For sexism, we need something like what you had indicated: "Only males should be in authority."
As far as I know, Paul didn't say that. Has he said something elsewhere that I am unaware of?
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 116 by crashfrog, posted 05-21-2003 4:35 AM crashfrog has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 120 by Mister Pamboli, posted 05-21-2003 11:52 AM Rrhain has replied
 Message 122 by crashfrog, posted 05-21-2003 4:01 PM Rrhain has replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 123 of 175 (41146)
05-23-2003 5:45 PM
Reply to: Message 119 by John
05-21-2003 11:11 AM


John responds to me:
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I am calm. You're the one that's overreacting.
Spoken like a true paranoid.
(*chuckle*)
Well, if you don't like the armchair psychoanalysis being reflected back, perhaps you shouldnt engage in it in the first place. Though don't get me wrong...I always learn the most interesting things when people try.
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I don't understand your statement.
You argue that a word isn't biased but can be used in a biased way. Why can't it work the other way around?
Because if it is biased, it can't be used in an unbiased way except by those who don't know what the word means.
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Nor did I say they were.
Quite a few things about your posts make me think you are taking this quite personally. It must just be something in your writing style.
Or perhaps it is naught but an invention of your own desire to have me take it personally. Let me disabuse you of this notion as strongly as possible. I've been online in discussion groups back when BITNET was still around and the internet was something only places like universities and research labs had access to.
I don't take anything personally. Not even the person who called me the Anti-Christ. Do I argue passionately? Yes. I wouldn't be here if I didn't actually take an interest in the subject. But "personally"? Please. That would require me having an emotional investment in you. I don't even know you.
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How? If the definition is clear and the majority of speakers recognize the defintion and the context made it clear which definition was intended, where is the bias?
Words have connotations and associations which you seem to not recognize.
No, I'd say I'm the one that is recognizing them. You are the one that is refusing to accept certain definitions
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People don't work like machines lock-stepping through definitions to the 'right' one.
I didn't say they did. However, they are intelligent and understand what the language means.
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When a person hears or reads the word 'he' there are a great many more associations than 'an organism which produces sperm.'
I think that's my point! Thank you!
One of those associations is "generic person."
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In appropriate contexts. That's where usage comes in.
Doublespeak.
How? You're going to need to provide more context.
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That should make it even more apparent that there isn't any bias.
Yes. Statements taken out of context CAN be used to support your arguments.
Strange. You're the one that is removing all context. You respond to single words without providing any context for what prompted the word. Hack, hack, hack. How can we keep up the thread if you keep removing the context?
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But is it? There is a difference between perception and reality.
This is all very glib, and I respect that; but what is the point? Can you elucidate?
Just like I said in the very beginning:
Just because you think something doesn't mean it really is. I'm reminded of an exchange in the remake of D.O.A.
"What I say? That's 'imply.' The way you take it? That's 'infer.'"
I'm also reminded of the flap not so long ago when David Howard referred to the budget as "niggardly" in a speech and everybody thought he had just defecated on the Pope. I don't deny they took offense, but I do deny that they had any reason to do so. The word "niggardly" has no connection at all to the word they all thought he was using and yet, because of everybody else's ignorance, he was forced to resign.
All because he used a common word with no racist sentiments correctly in a sentence.
Just because a bunch of people think something doesn't mean it's true.
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So if I understand that definition and I am clear in my usage that that is the meaning I intend by that usage, by what justification is there for someone else to come along and say that I am being biased?
Lol... and back to my original answer. No one is saying you-- rhetorical you-- is being biased. Suppose your-- rhetorical your-- sweet little grandmother says to rhetorical you upon meeting rhetorical you's new friend, "Why, I didn't know you were friends with a negro?" hmmm... Grannie may have meant no harm. She may not be prejudiced one whit. But that phrase is going to hit like a brick, no matter how much defining she does. The point being, YOU don't have to be biased to say things that sound biased.
But if everybody around understands, then is it really biased? If I get it and you get and she gets it and it technically is correct, why do we all suddenly go ape because some other person doesn't get it?
And by the way: I understand when the first and second person are being used rhetorically and when they are being used personally. Like I said, I don't take this personally. Please stop behaving as if I am.
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Because if the language makes a distinction, I understand that distintion, and you understand that distinction, how can there be any bias if we all agree that what was said was what was actually meant?
You can't treat language as if it were a formal, and stable, system. You can't treat it like frelling Boolean algebra! Language is fuzzy. Logicians figured this out long ago, hence the abundance of symbolic systems today. In other words, what you envision is impossible.
I wasn't. I asked you a direct question.
If everybody gets it, where is the justification that it wasn't really what happened? If what I imply is the same thing as what you infer, how is there any claim that there is actually something different going on?
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But what is bias if not a moral judgement?
You are fond of definitions. Try this.
1) a line diagonal to the grain of the fabric
2) a peculiarity in the shape of a bowl that causes it to swerve
3) an inclination of temperament or outlook
4) deviation of the value of a statistical estimate from the quantity it estimates
5) a systemic error introduced into sampling to encourage one outcome over the other
( From Merriam-Webster )
Also:
6) a partiality that prevents objective consideration
7) a surname
8) to influence in an unfair way
There is nothing there that is necessarily a moral judgement. That you connected morality to it serves to support my point. There is more going on with language than you want to admit.
Um, what is "a partiality that prevents objective consideration" if not a moral judgement?
And surely you're not about to engage in equivocation as if what we were all talking about in this conversation about "bias" was "a line diagonal to the grain of the fabric," are you?
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That is, just because many people find it difficult to talk of nursing without using feminine pronouns doesn't mean the language is forcing you to use feminine pronouns.
But you said it yourself. The language is biased toward feminine pronouns for that profession.
No, I didn't. In fact, I said the exact opposite. Try it again:
Just because many people find it difficult...that doesn't mean the language is forcing you....
Get it? There is a difference between the people and the language. Just because the people are having a hard time in their heads with a concept doesn't mean the language is making them think that way. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis is weak, not strong.
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Why are you now using the term 'forced'?
Because that's what people are saying. Schraf even posted studies showing that when masculine terms are used in the neuter, people think of males. She was using them to justify a claim of sexism.
I.e., "forced."
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No one has claimed that the language forces you to do anything, but only that it leans to one usage over others-- ie, it has a bias.
So if I'm not using that usage, who are you to tell me that I am?
The problem is not that a word has definitions A and B but A is more common. It's that people are saying that a word has definition A and only sexists would attempt to give it definition B...in fact, the language, itself, is sexist for having a definition B.
"Niggardly" has nothing to do with race...no matter how many people want it to. It does not mean what they think it means and for them to be offended is for them to show their ignorance. This is easily solvable by them learning what the word means. A charge of racism can't be undone.
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It seems you are stumbling into a straw man.
Strange...I was going to say the same thing about you.
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Remember the discussion we had about linguistic determinism? We both agreed that the strong version is untenable? Well, you are invoking the strong version here, and that is inappropriate.
Strange...I was going to say the same thing about you. You're arguing the strong version of the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis.
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Because the language is not tied to any one person.
Thus language, an abstract concept, can 'understand'? This makes no sense.
Why? Are you saying that there is no internal logic to language? We've got computer programs that are pretty efficient at parsing language.
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In a sense, the language exists outside of its speakers.
Do you honestly believe that a language exists if there is no one to speak it, read it, or write it?
You're being too literal. A language is bigger than any individual speaker. I can't be "two." Neither can you. But together, we become "two" and will remain so as long as we're together. That two-ness disappears as soon as we separate and so is dependent upon us, but it is not us, individually.
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There are many times when a dictionary is proscriptive.
I think dictionaries have historically tried to be proscriptive, with some exceptions I'm sure, and my grade school teachers certainly tried to make them proscriptive.
Not just the dictionary...the people who use the dictionary do it. If I say to you, "You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means," you will probably agree with me if I pull out the dictionary and show you that what you think it means does not appear in any of the definitions.
You, yourself, tried to do just that with "bias" not a moment ago.
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In my own writing habits, for example, I often lose my nots.
Your example is irrelevant, as far as I can tell.
How would you know? You removed the context.
Are you seriously saying that a person who knows what he wants to say but accidentally misspeaks himself is not relevant in a discussion about meaning?
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We all agree that those are the rules and that if you break them, you aren't saying what you mean to say.
No, I don't think we all agree to this. There are some patterns that cannot be broken without consequence, but but not all patterns are like that. Good writers break the rules all the time.
So you're saying that a good writer could make "black" really mean "white"? What were you saying about doublespeak?
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The idea that the language is biased is the idea that proper usage implies-- more or less subtly-- meanings the user may not intend or even be aware of at all.
But what I am saying is that proper usage does not imply that at all. It is the improper use that does.
It is what everybody did to David Howard and he lost his job over it. He used a common word properly and because a bunch of people didn't know the word, he was made out to be the bad guy. Rather than the proper response of the spotlight of shame being put on them for jumping to conclusions, for insisting that there is some sort of insidiousness involved, that he "should have known better" (and thus even more proof of the insidiousness inherent in Howard) that he was speaking to a bunch of poorly educated people and thus dumbed down his language to a fifth grade level, everybody jumps on him.
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A word carries more meanings than its strict contextually correct definition.
But if I don't use those other meanings and context makes it clear that none of those other meanings are intended, why are you trying to shoehorn them in? Orneriness?
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Propaganda works on this principle. So does advertising-- ok, same thing. Poetry, metaphor, innuendo, and a great many jokes work on this principle. How can you be missing it? How can you be denying it?
I'm not denying it. In fact, that is my entire point: Context makes it clear. The reason why all those things work is because of the context. And if the context makes it clear that none of those other meanings are intended, where is the justification for trying to insert them?
Take your "bias" example. It really does mean to cut diagonally across the grain of the fabric.
Do you think anybody here meant that when using the word "bias" in this discussion up until this point?
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Are you saying the language is forcing you to think in a certain way? Or is it you are forcing the language to behave in a certain way?
'Force' is much too strong. ( Remember Sapir-Whorf-- weak version? )
Then why are you arguing the strong version?
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But in a weak sense, the effect does work both ways. Propaganda is an example of the first, and the second shouldn't need much argument. Languages change.
I know. But at any single moment, it isn't changing. So if I know what I mean when I say something and you know what I meant when you hear what I said, why the accusation that there was something else going on?
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But here's the thing: You were right. It doesn't matter how much a person may complain that he thinks the word is derived from "apologize." He's wrong. It doesn't mean that. No matter how much he can complain about the usage, he's wrong.
Doesn't matter. The word has a bad taste, whatever the correct meaning.
Only to those who are ignorant of the language.
Again, someone lost his job because a bunch of poorly educated people were shocked at an innocuous word used correctly in a sentence. Does that make sense to you? Are you seriously saying that out of politeness, we should defer to the listener for meaning? A speaker is now required to psychically determine the vocabulary of all possible listeners and adjust his language accordingly? A listener has no responsibility? If a listener thinks something, then the speaker really meant that? It is never justified for a speaker to say, "You misunderstood" and have it really be because the listener made a mistake?
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That is how language works. Thats how language changes. Try looking up what is considered a synonym of 'apologetic.' Synonyms are pretty good indicators of a words connotations-- a word's feel. For 'apologetic' you get, among others, defensive, excusatory, and justificatory. In other words, the poster's reaction has some basis in usage.
I don't deny that. But you used the word correctly. Why are you taking responsibility for his lack of education?
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No, there isn't. That's a pretty big claim you've made there, that everybody is incapable of understanding the difference between a general concept and a specific concept.
This is not my claim. It is not now my claim, nor has it ever been my claim. I imagine that everyone who uses 'he' as a general term, understands it to be general, but the word still carries associations with penises. It is the idea behind the 'don't think of a blue monkey' thought experiment. You can't help but have a fleeting thought of a blue monkey.
Actually, I can.
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When someone says 'he' you think of gender and then, if appropriate, correct it to 'general reference.'
No, I don't. The context has usually made it clear long before we got to that word.
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Why is it we don't hear people complaining nearly as much about the need for a "you, general" pronoun to contrast with the "you, specific" pronoun?
Because 'you' in either usage is gender neutral. This should be obvious.
That doesn't answer the question. It does seem to be a problem. You yourself made quite a show of talking about "rhetorical you" above since you seemed to think I was having a problem distinguishing between "you" in the generic and "you" in the specific.
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There's that assumption, again.
Do you deny that words pick up meanings as they pass mouth to ear over time?
No.
I do deny that every single meaning comes along for the ride just because a word gets used.
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Do you deny that these meanings and connotations get passed along?
No.
I do deny that every single meaning comes along for the ride just because a word gets used.
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Unless you deny these things, drop this idiocy. It amounts to saying that a language's history has no effect upon the meaning of words.
But that's my argument: A word's history does have an effect on its meaning.
And the history of "he" is that it is used in the neuter.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 119 by John, posted 05-21-2003 11:11 AM John has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 138 by John, posted 05-25-2003 12:00 PM Rrhain has replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 124 of 175 (41149)
05-23-2003 6:04 PM
Reply to: Message 120 by Mister Pamboli
05-21-2003 11:52 AM


Mister Pamboli responds to me:
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But the fact that Paul refers to god as "he" and "corrects" those who call god "she" is not sufficient to justify a claim of sexism.
Correct in the case of Paul, but ...
Since it's Paul's usage we're discussing, how is there a "but"?
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But by the same token, schraf shouldn't have cried sexism. It was indicative of her jumping to a conclusion.
Not really. Remember that schraf is contextualising this in a continuing history of bias.
But if Paul wasn't being sexist, how could there be any logical "contextualizing"? How could there be any "continuing history of bias" if the particular incident which brought it up wasn't an example of bias?
Unless, of course, as I seem to have determined from schraf, her statement was a complete non sequitur.
I think I might be pardoned for thinking that schraf was actually talking about Paul when she responded to him and used him as an example.
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You may want to treat Paul's post as an atomic utterance, devoid of any context, but schraf is entitled to do otherwise.
No, it's the other way around. It appears that it is schraf's post that must be considered devoid of any context if she is to be excused for crying sexism.
If Paul's comments weren't sexist, then what was the point of schraf using Paul's comments as a "contextualisation," an example of a "continuing history of bias"?
Ah...I get it...schraf was simply making a non sequitur.
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She would have been jumping to a conclusion had she claimed Paul was personally sexist - as the only evidence she had was his post - but she did not do that: she claimed the language had sexism ingrained.
Again, how does this not reflect upon Paul since he was the one who used the langauge?
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though we would prefer he not be rude about it
And there's the rub: he was rude
So? The response to someone who is rude is to be rude in return? I fully agree that outrageous behaviour requires an outrageous response, but that doesn't mean you do something just as rude.
And like it or not, rudeness is not the same as sexism. Paul's rolling his eyes, at the very least showing dismissal of your point of view without respecting that you have it, is not indicative of sexism. It might be, but we haven't managed to get that far.
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it wasn't the challenge, but the dismissive attitude that led to schraf's comment.
But how does a dismissive attitude lead to a charge of sexism?
What pronoun would you suggest one use to describe Mr. Einstein? If I scoff at you for suggesting "she," is that indicative of me being sexist or is it indicative of me being certain that Mr. Einstein is male?
Or is it sexist to conclude that a person is male by observation?
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You yourself have recognized it. All this sidetracking about what Paul sincerely believes and the irrelevant guff about pronouns and Einstein really does distract from the core issue: schraf's assertion that Paul's rude responsewas the result of ingrained sexism in the language.
Which I have been saying is wrong.
The langauge isn't sexist. Paul wasn't being demonstrably sexist with that one statement. Ergo, schraf's cry of sexism is unjustified.
If she were referring to Paul, she owes him an apology.
And if she were making a non sequitur, then she should have spawned a new thread.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 120 by Mister Pamboli, posted 05-21-2003 11:52 AM Mister Pamboli has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 126 by crashfrog, posted 05-23-2003 6:46 PM Rrhain has replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 127 of 175 (41152)
05-23-2003 6:47 PM
Reply to: Message 121 by Mister Pamboli
05-21-2003 1:30 PM


Mister Pamboli responds to me:
quote:
quote:
Yes, I am sure I meant to say that.
Fair enough: but no games. Sorry if I got you wrong. I thought you were perhaps discussing traditional logic, in which the truth or falsity of premises is of little interest, but the method of reasoning is paramount.
Strange, in my training in logic, the truth of the premises are just as important. After all, the very point behind indirect proof is to show the premise to be false.
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We seem to have switched from "nurse" meaning "one who gives care, especially one who does so under the supervision of a physician" to "nurse" meaning "one who breastfeeds."
Exactly, the word has evolved two meanings, one of which is strongly gender-specific and the other isn't. The newer meaning of a medical care-giver has evolved by usage. Yet, in an earlier post, you claimed: ... reality trumps usage. The word doesn't mean that no matter how many people think it does.
But if this true, then there is no equivocation, for you frequently hint that a word really means what it's etymology implies. If there is equivocation, then it is because usage enables us to move between meanings which are radically different from the implications of the etymology.
No, no, no! Reality trumps usage, yes. Is there something about "one who gives care, especially one who does so under the supervision of a physician" that would lead one to believe that the person is female? Is there something biological about being female that allows one to do this?
Compare this to breastfeeding. There really is something about being female that allows one to do this. Without extreme medical intervention, males simply can't do this.
The logical error of equivocation is to switch meanings of a word that has multiple meanings. Whether the word has those multiple meanings through extension or separate etymologies* is not relevant. The fact is that they have those multiple meanings and to switch definitions in the middle of a statement is illogical.
Not what it "etymologically implies" but what it actually means. A word means what it actually means.
* There's a word for that which escapes me at the moment...that is, "bank" meaning "place to put your money" and "bank" meaning "edge of a riverbed" are actually separate words with different etymologies that in English managed to get spelled and pronounced exactly the same.
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There are many times when a dictionary is proscriptive.
Not in English.
You mean people don't go to dictionaries to look up the meaning of words as if they were proscriptive?
Of course one may arbitrarily decide to use a dictionary proscriptively - Scrabble players do it all the time.
That's for spelling. I'm talking about meaning.
Are you really telling me that people don't routinely turn to people and say, "You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means," and then back it up by going to the dictionary and showing that the apparent meaning is not listed? And that people don't accept this line of reasoning?
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But the proscription comes from the readers decision to be proscribed to.
Isn't that sufficient? Meaning comes from usage, but where does usage come from? Indeed, a signficant part of it comes from the day-to-day speaking and writing of the language, but another part of it comes from people looking to "authoritative sources" like dictionaries and things like Elements of Style.
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(Do you know the delightful book Cod Streuth by Bamber Gascoine. If not, I recommend it - if I read you right, you would love it. A monk is captured in 1560 by Brazilian cannibals, who think his 10 pages of Rabelais (Book 3: 26-28) are the Bible they have been promised. The monk is made patriarch and rather than admit the error, he attempts to use them to convert the natives using Rabelais. The Passion Play which turns into an orgy is particularly fun.)
Can't say that I have. It'll have to wait, though...I have Small Gods to finish and then The Truth and Carpe Jugulum.
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It is never appropriate to say, "You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means"?
It can, of course, be justified, within a community of users. If I use the word doubt to mean expect - a fine Scots usage - an Englishman may well raise Inigo's point.
But once the Englishman learns that the Scot isn't misspeaking himself, does he still get to harbor resentment toward the Scot for persisting in that usage?
quote:
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Hmmm...seems like you got the "derivative in there somewhere." It's an implication...negation of pleasure from s**t, ergo the equivalence of pleasure between anchovies and s**t results in the negation of pleasure from s**t.
Nice wriggling, but I'm not buying it.
Too bad.
quote:
There is no derivative of not in here.
You mean you do like s**t?
quote:
Think back to what you were saying about Youngquist's poems and how the difference between them was not something the language can tell you.
I am.
quote:
In you second post you say The word is not derived that way but in the first, It doesn't mean that. I get the very clear impression that derivation and meaning are very closely equivalent to you
You shouldn't for I don't.
quote:
Well, it may mean that for a community of one user! And that raises the interesting point as to whether language actually does require a community: that is, greater than one user. Would a person raised entirely without communication with any other being have anything that could be called language?
There have been studies on this (alas, the subjects tend to be children who have suffered horrible abuse.) The answer seemingly is no, they don't. The way the brain works, language needs to be taught early. If a person gets beyond that point in brain development without acquiring language, he will never achieve any sort of mastery of language.
quote:
quote:
I'm thinking of words like "absotively" and "posilutely"...people know those "aren't real words," but they use them anyway because they like them.
Except that such words may make it into a dictionary - in which case, do they become real?
There's a process. They'll go through a period where they are recognized but considered informal or slang. Over time, they may acquire more mainstream usages.
quote:
Has the dictionary made them real, or were they real beforehand?
Beforehand. The loop has to start somewhere.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 121 by Mister Pamboli, posted 05-21-2003 1:30 PM Mister Pamboli has not replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 128 of 175 (41153)
05-23-2003 6:50 PM
Reply to: Message 122 by crashfrog
05-21-2003 4:01 PM


crashfrog:
quote:
Well, what pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. Einstein?
quote:
By way of turnaround, let me ask you:
What pronoun would you use to refer to Mr. George Elliot?
Dunno. Do you mean the alias or the actual person behind the alias or something else? After all, since Ms. Evans created the persona, she will be the one to determine if "George Elliot" refers to a male, a female, or something else entirely.
Ergo, poor analogy. Albert Einstein was not an alias.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 122 by crashfrog, posted 05-21-2003 4:01 PM crashfrog has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 129 by crashfrog, posted 05-23-2003 7:03 PM Rrhain has replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 130 of 175 (41157)
05-23-2003 7:10 PM
Reply to: Message 125 by crashfrog
05-23-2003 6:44 PM


crashfrog responds to me:
quote:
To expand the topic, Rrhain - is it your assertion that English has no sexual bias? Or that no language whatsoever could be sexually biased?
I am saying that in this particular instance, there is no bias. In order to make a comment about the whole language, I'd have to know everything about it, which I don't.
quote:
I'd like to bring up Japanese. Now, I'm no speaker of japanese, native or not, but it's been my understanding (perhaps erroneous) that women who speak japanese are expected to speak it differently than men.
Yes. Other languages have similar restrictions. When concepts get reflected back upon the speaker and the language is gendered, for example, it can lead to women saying one thing while men saying something else, even though they mean the same thing.
Romance languages have a concept of "you, familiar" and "you, formal." Thus, a teacher will refer to students using the familiar while the students will refer to the teacher in the formal.
quote:
In particular, I understand it to be the case that the language women are supposed to use is more similar to the language men use when speaking to people percived to be of higher social station, as opposed to the language men use when speaking to equals.
I find this to be a sexist construction; the idea that women must address (particularly) men as though they are of higher social station than they.
At the very least, it is a sexist usage. The question is, is it deemed "linguistically correct" for a woman to use the familiar forms when talking to men? Cultural sexism is not the same as linguistic sexism.
quote:
Also it's my understanding that sexism persists to a great degree in Japanese society, so it seems reasonable to infer that the sexism in their society and the sexism in their language are related.
But correlation is not causation. I do not deny that there is a great deal of sexism in what is considered "typical" Japanese culture (at least from the Western perspective...not having been to Japan, myself...is that enough caveats?) and as such, I would very much expect that to be reflected in the way the language is used.
But is it considered linguistically wrong for a woman to use the familiar with men? Or just rude?
quote:
Also, Rrhain, what pronoun would you suggest one use to refer to Mr. George Elliot?
Like I said, dunno. Are you referring to the alias, the woman behind the alias, or something else? And since Ms. Evans created George Elliot, we'll have to make sure how she constructed the persona.
But then again, since Albert Einstein isn't an alias, it is a false analogy.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 125 by crashfrog, posted 05-23-2003 6:44 PM crashfrog has not replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 131 of 175 (41158)
05-23-2003 7:18 PM
Reply to: Message 129 by crashfrog
05-23-2003 7:03 PM


crashfrog responds to me:
quote:
But that's not the point. The point is, you need specific information about George Elliot/Mary Evans gender beyond the use of titles to determine which one to use.
Only because George Elliot isn't a real person!
Einstein was a real person.
quote:
No matter how much you believe George Elliot is male or female, it's up to Mary Evans to determine what to use.
And by saying "Mr." that's a reasonable indication to use "he."
But since "George Elliot" has dual targets, the alias and the author, the problem of which pronoun to use requires one to decide which target is required.
Since "Albert Einstein" has only a single target, there's no confusion.
quote:
No matter how many people referred at the time to the author of George Elliot's articles as "Mr.", no matter how sure they were that George Elliot was a man, they were wrong.
But what is meant by "George Elliot"? The alias or the author?
Einstein was a real person. "Albert Einstein" was not an alias. And please, let's not get disingenuous and start hashing out the difference between an object and its name.
quote:
And they were misled because of an era of sexism that wouldn't have tolerated or accepted the views of a female reporter.
So the answer is "he."
quote:
Remember, the question isn't "what gender is Einstein", the question is "is it appropriate to infer God's gender without access to God's genitalia?"
What makes you think we don't have access?
I'd think Jesus would be a pretty good person to look to and he kept on calling god his "father" and Mary his "mother."
quote:
As per your own arguments, apparently not. No matter how many times the Bible refers to god as "He", it's sexist to assume that reference means god is male.
Oh, stop playing games.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 129 by crashfrog, posted 05-23-2003 7:03 PM crashfrog has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 132 by crashfrog, posted 05-23-2003 7:35 PM Rrhain has replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 133 of 175 (41160)
05-23-2003 7:35 PM
Reply to: Message 126 by crashfrog
05-23-2003 6:46 PM


crashfrog responds to me:
quote:
quote:
If she were referring to Paul, she owes him an apology.
As do you, probably, for the countless times you've referred to Paul as an "idiot", "careless", etc.
I didn't.
Show me a single time where I referred to Paul as any of the above where it wasn't being used as a rhetorical device.
Show me a single time where I said something to the effect of, "I, Rrhain, think that Paul is an idiot."
quote:
Or perhaps he/she without sin should throw the first of these stones?
Got my rocks right here.
Show me where I sinned. I'll wait.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 126 by crashfrog, posted 05-23-2003 6:46 PM crashfrog has not replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 134 of 175 (41163)
05-23-2003 7:51 PM
Reply to: Message 132 by crashfrog
05-23-2003 7:35 PM


crashfrog responds to me:
quote:
quote:
Only because George Elliot isn't a real person!
To the contrary, George Elliot was the author of a great many articles of an expository nature, including a series on the horrors of mental institutions of the time.
No, that was Mary Ann Evans writing under the pen name of George Elliot.
Similarly, the person who wrote Thinner was Stephen King...it was merely published under the name of Richard Bachman.
quote:
Of course, George Elliot was simply the pen name of Mary Anne Evans. I hardly think a pen name counts as a "persona", however.
How old is "George Elliott"?
quote:
A persona connotes a well-developed fictitious person used to confuse or conceal identity.
Why does a persona have to be well-developed?
quote:
When I change my name I don't adopt a new persona. My friend Scott who chooses to use his middle name rather than his first name (Micheal) hasn't adopted a persona. Both "George Elliot" and "Mary Anne Evans" refer to the same individual in different circumstances.
Do they?
quote:
quote:
And please, let's not get disingenuous and start hashing out the difference between an object and its name.
I'm not. An object has names that refer to it. "George Elliot" and "Mary Anne Evans" refer to the same woman.
Do they?
quote:
This is a very strange argument, coming from a Platonist. Or don't you think there's a specific individual that "George Elliot" and "Mary Anne Evans" refer to?
Both? No. Not really. There is Mary Ann Evans and there is the alias, George Elliot.
quote:
quote:
So the answer is "he."
The answer is "she", now that we know the true gender status of Mary Anne Evans.
But you just said George Elliot is a man. Ergo, "he."
Mary Ann Evans, on the other hand, being a woman, is "she."
quote:
Now, it's one thing to take the newspaper's word that one of its writers is a man. We can hardly go around looking up the skirts of every person we meet. It's another assume maleness simply because one is a writer, or a scientist, or a god.
Indeed. But culturally, "George" is considered a man's name. If the owner of the name does not bother to fix the assumption...in fact, if the owner of the name is actively attempting to cultivate that perception, then we can hardly be blamed for referring to "George" as "he."
But, we're not going off of someone attempting make you think something when it comes to Paul's perception of god.
quote:
quote:
I'd think Jesus would be a pretty good person to look to and he kept on calling god his "father" and Mary his "mother."
I'm sorry, do you have access to Jesus's writings?
You mean the Bible isn't the word of god? (*blink!*)
You're determined to refuse to look at this from Paul's point of view, aren't you?
quote:
quote:
Oh, stop playing games.
Why? Didn't you just argue that "he" doesn't always mean the referent is male?
Yes, I did.
But I also said that equivocation is a logical error and to switch definitions in the middle of a sentence is equivocation. You can't use any old definition you want. Many words have multiple meanings and context will make it clear which one it is...note, which one it is.
And please, let's not get disingenuous and bring up double entendres. The game playing is not appreciated.
quote:
You're a slippery fellow to pin down. I just can't figure out what you think.
That's because it would appear that you're more interested in playing games than discussing things.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 132 by crashfrog, posted 05-23-2003 7:35 PM crashfrog has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 135 by crashfrog, posted 05-23-2003 8:10 PM Rrhain has replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 136 of 175 (41205)
05-24-2003 4:55 AM
Reply to: Message 135 by crashfrog
05-23-2003 8:10 PM


crashfrog responds to me:
quote:
quote:
How old is "George Elliott"?
George Elliot is dead. What a funny question.
How can an imaginary person die?
quote:
quote:
Why does a persona have to be well-developed?
I dunno, why does a word have to mean anything?
That doesn't answer my question. Why do you insist that a "persona" has to be a "well-developed" ideation of personality?
quote:
In every instance of the use of the word "persona" I'm familiar with - including it's use by people with personas - the it refers to fictitious people with fictitious backgrounds, personal narratives, etc - in every way, alternate, well-developed people. Pen names don't have that.
As an actor, I've played many personas...including people who exist merely because the scene needs bodies.
I'm very anti-method. It is a common practice among actors who follow the Method to fill in complete histories of their characters. For example, in the musical Marry Me a Litte, there are two characters, one male and one female. Though at one point she calls him "Ben" and he sings a song that could be interpreted to be a reference to her as "Harriet," that is simply an artifact of the fact that the songs are all interpolations. The script does not assign the characters names.
A Method actor would create a name. I didn't. It wasn't important. The Method actor would say, "But if your character were asked his name, he'd know what it was!" And, indeed, that's true. Thankfully, my character is never asked what his name is in the entire production. It isn't like I run around actively concentrating on what my name is. I know what it is and I know so without having to give it any thought. But because nobody has asked me what it is in the last few hours, I haven't said it at any time. And thus, I won't waste my time worrying about it when I have other things to do.
A persona can be as developed as it needs to be. If it's more, that's great, but sometimes all we need is existence.
quote:
quote:
Do they?
Hrm, why would I write something if I didn't think it was true? Now who's playing games?
Just returning the favor. I think we're at another fundamental impasse.
quote:
quote:
But you just said George Elliot is a man. Ergo, "he."
I don't recall saying that. George Elliot is a woman.
Then you were wrong to say "Mr. George Elliot."
quote:
quote:
You mean the Bible isn't the word of god? (*blink!*)
You're determined to refuse to look at this from Paul's point of view, aren't you?
Why would I assume something that isn't true?
Because when you are trying to understand something that someone else has said, it is helpful if you have some idea of where he is coming from as it will guide you in interpreting his statement.
quote:
Yes, I'm unwilling to look at the point of view of somebody who's wrong.
Even as a method of understanding why he's saying what he's saying? You refuse to consider somebody's point of view just for the sake of argument so that you can see where it goes and understand why he is saying what it is that he is saying?
I didn't say you had to believe it heart and soul. I simply said you are unwilling to even consider the possibility that somebody has a different set of premises from which he's working and that his statements might make sense given those premises.
Do you really not see that it can help you show why somebody has made a mistake by taking the time to see where he's coming from?
quote:
Paul's view of the inerrant bible may be just another symptom of ingrained sexism.
It may be...but until you take the time to look at it from his point of view, you'll never know...it'll just be an assumption on your part.
quote:
I mean, the statement "Men are better than women" can hardly be considered sexist by your logic if we assume that women really are inferior to men. But why assume such a thing? Especially in the face of evidence to the contrary?
Because you have to demostrate the evidence!
You've concluded that Paul is being sexist by his assertion that god is male, but you haven't demonstrated why.
quote:
You can be sexist without knowing it. It may not make you a sexist, personally, but your comments are still sexist, no matter how much you believe them to be accurate.
Is it sexist if it seems to be accurate?
You may have contrary evidence, but what makes you think the person you're arguing with has that evidence? Have you asked him? Have you taken the time to figure out where he is coming from so that you can more easily demonstrate why you think he's wrong?
quote:
quote:
That's because it would appear that you're more interested in playing games than discussing things.
Honestly, that might be true. My willingness to really discuss evaporated about 100 posts ago. My interest in playing games has only risen as you continue to play games yourself.
Until that last post, I haven't played a single game.
Perhaps that's the problem. But if you truly don't want to continue this with integrity and intellectual honesty, then do everyone a favor and let it drop. We've reached an impasse. I doubt either of us is going to change the other's mind and while I can see the value of trying to find out why you think the way you do, you apparently don't have the similar desire but would rather screw around.
Shall we let it go?
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 135 by crashfrog, posted 05-23-2003 8:10 PM crashfrog has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 137 by crashfrog, posted 05-24-2003 1:31 PM Rrhain has not replied

Rrhain
Member
Posts: 6351
From: San Diego, CA, USA
Joined: 05-03-2003


Message 139 of 175 (41510)
05-27-2003 6:27 PM
Reply to: Message 138 by John
05-25-2003 12:00 PM


Since this thread has seemingly petered out, I'll restrict my comments to a single point.
John responds to me:
quote:
quote:
"Niggardly" has nothing to do with race...no matter how many people want it to.
I agree that what happened to the politician is sad, but I also think he should have known better. Ignorance of one's language's changes is foolish, especially for a man whose position depends upon public opinion. Equally foolish is the insistence upon a usage that is quickly becoming archaic.
Except it isn't archaic. Not in the slightest. I don't know where you live, but I hear the term often enough. And no, it was not foolish of him. He had no reason to think that the people to whom he was speaking wouldn't know a common word.
I'm reminded of a time when a couple friends of mine and I were talking. One I had gone to college with and the other was a newer friend who, while quite intelligent, didn't have such a formal education. At any rate, my college friend used the word "ubiquitous" and my other friend exploded: "You keep doing that! Using those big words and making me feel stupid!"
Now, I certainly understand the frustration of my friend, but over the word "ubiquitous"? I readily admit that I have a huge vocabulary, but I didn't think "ubiquitous" was such a high-falutin' word.
Same thing here. Since when did "niggardly" become obsolete? When did we agree that everyone has a fifth-grade education?
There is no "change" in the term "niggardly." It does not mean anything about race, never has, and still doesn't.
Just because people think something is true doesn't mean it is.
quote:
'Niggardly' HAD nothing to do with race. It does now, apparently, at least in this country.
No, it doesn't. People heard "niggardly" and thought he said something spelled differently. It wasn't a question of "niggardly" picking up another meaning. It was a question of them thinking he said something he simply did not say.
They simply did not know the word and because it rhymed with a something they didn't like, they jumped to a conclusion.
And that, I think, is the crux of the argument. I'm willing to place miscommunication blame at the foot of the listener when it's appropriate.
quote:
Words pick up and loose meaning all the time. Some words have reversed meaning 180 degrees. If we were talking about historical changes, you'd understand this. But for some reason you want to deny that the process is still occurring.
Not at all.
What you're denying is that it hasn't happened in many instances.
In Romance languages, there is the concept of "perfection." Is the action completed? I very much agree that the language is changing.
But it hasn't finished this particular change. And since it hasn't, to ascribe ulterior motives to someone using the language in its still-generally-accepted manner is, at the very least, obnoxious.
------------------
Rrhain
WWJD? JWRTFM!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 138 by John, posted 05-25-2003 12:00 PM John has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 140 by John, posted 06-01-2003 7:43 PM Rrhain has replied
 Message 142 by nator, posted 06-05-2003 8:39 AM Rrhain has replied

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