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Faith  Suspended Member (Idle past 1738 days) Posts: 35298 From: Nevada, USA Joined: |
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Author | Topic: The Tension of Faith | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined: |
We have faith that many historical documents represent an accurate account of events without further evidence. 'We' don't. We tend to suppose the mundane documents are more reliable than the fantastic - but we definitely don't have faith that they are accurate without further evidence. So if we had a document that suggested wine was purchased by the house of Caligula - we can believe that. It is consistent with other evidence (people bought wine, the Julio-Claudian family was wealthy, people recorded transactions....). If we found a document that claimed Caligula was the God, the Father (Deus Pater - Jupiter) - we'd probably not have faith in that document's accuracy.
In the case of the Gospels it isn't just one person making these claims but numerous people from multiple sources. 4 people. And in fact, we know there were many others. They differ in important facts to the point of contradiction. 3 of them are clearly drawing from the same source material (or two of them are drawing from the third). The Gospels are clearly biased - written by those who are trying to persuade, not just report.
Much of it being written while there were still eye witnesses. Irrelevant. It wasn't like mass production happened, there is no reason to suppose that the texts were written anywhere near where the supposed witnesses lived. Most of the witnesses are unlikely to be able to read Greek. There is no evidence that there was anything *to* witness - and the text is vague enough about time and location to mean nobody could say 'I was there at that time and that didn't happen' - and even if they did - who would record that, and copy that recording over and over again? Also - of the events that are described which we would expect large numbers of witnesses to be able to verify - they don't. No census where people returned to where they born is recorded, no traditional public pardoning of criminals at Passover, no dead bodies walking around, no record of a tumult at the temple. The maji/wisemen's records didn't survive. Nothing from Herod or Pilate (and one wonders who witnessed these conversations and spoke of them later?)
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined:
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Sure, but that does not have anything to say about whether or not the fantastic is historical or not. But it does say that we don't simply have faith in something, fantastic or mundane. Which is what I was saying. There is a lot of things that biased reporters say to 'big up' their claims to their or other's authority and we rightly treat them with a pinch of salt.
Actually I disagree. The Gospels do not paint the disciples in a positive way, and they present the people who have the influence and the power to have them killed, very negatively. That isn't disagreeing with me. The Gospels were not written by the disciples, they were written by people attempting to persuade. By making the disciples less than perfect they make it easier to show how great Jesus us - a method of persuasion when trying to market Jesus as awesome. Having an enemy is also persuasive. Just look at modern day extremist literature - they present people who have the power to have them killed very negatively too. That hardly speaks to its truth - it's a standard technique to unite by constructing a narrative of a common enemy - often Jewish religious authorities. The disciples are regularly depicted as being dumb, serving as a narrative hook for Jesus to provide more exposition. Much like Socrates' opponents were convenient to Socrates making his points (or rather, Plato).
Certainly there are points of contradictions as we would expect to see in any such account. Look at the variations we get in the witnesses of a car accident. I think the contradictions are more significant than witness accounts of a car accident. I actually looked at car accident witness statements as part of my living as when I worked in motor insurance. So let's look at a relatively mundane event - the healing of the mother-in-law. In Matthew 8 - the event takes place in Peter's home and it's Peter's mother-in-lawBut Mark 1 and Luke 4 describe it happening in Simon's home and it was Simon's mother-in-law. If I had only two witnesses and they disagreed with who was driving a car - both accounts would be thrown out. With three - all accounts are suspect, but we'd side with the two that do agree normally. But it's not just the differences - ironically the similarities are a problem too. If three witnesses describe the same event too closely - one must suspect they have either copied from another - tainting the credibility of all three, or they've copied from a common source doing likewise. Matthew 9: "As Jesus was walking along, he saw a man called Matthew sitting at the tax booth; and he said to him, Follow me. And he got up and followed him. And as he sat at dinner in the house, many tax collectors and sinners came and were sitting with him and his disciples. When the Pharisees saw this, they said to his disciples, Why does your teacher eat with tax collectors and sinners? But when he heard this, he said, "Those who are well have no need of a physician, but those who are sick. Go and learn what this means, ‘I desire mercy, not sacrifice.’ For I have come to call not the righteous but sinners. Mark 2: "As {Jesus} was walking along, he saw Levi son of Alphaeus sitting at the tax booth, and he said to him, Follow me. And he got up and followed him. And as he sat at dinner in Levi’s house, many tax collectors and sinners were also sitting with Jesus and his disciples--for there were many who followed him. When the scribes of the Pharisees saw that he was eating with sinners and tax collectors, they said to his disciples, Why does he eat with tax collectors and sinners? When Jesus heard this, he said to them, "Those who are well have no need of a physician, but those who are sick; I have come to call not the righteous but sinners. Luke gives an account very very similar to Mark. So they cannot be said to be independent sources. At best we have the synoptic gospels and John. And the differences between them can be pretty large.
However just as they all agree that an accident actually happened, all of those involved in writing the Gospels, and for that matter the Epistles, agree that the resurrection was historical. I think we can agree that agreement this broad was one of the criterion for them being included in the Bible.
Sure but would you really expect an account from Herod or Pilate to include something about Jesus It doesn't matter. It remains uncorroborated from named witnesses, especially those who are not biased towards selling Jesus as awesome. There are several 7th Century references to Muhammed from non-Muslim sources which is a good start when arguing for him actually existing and being involved in the events discussed by those texts. What does matter is that certain major events are unique to the Gospels - despite affecting more than the cast of the Gospels. The pardoning of criminals at Passover, the walking dead, the census rules of returning to one's birth home etc etc. These are narratively useful conceits - but there is no external evidence of them happening.
About the only account we have from that era is Josephus who mentions Jesus a couple of times Indeed - some sixty years after Jesus was alive Josephus may have mentioned that there was a man with a common name of Yeshua who was referred to by some as 'the anointed one'. As you say, it tells us very little. In conclusion we don't have 4 sources and we don't have any grounds to accept the credibility of any of them on any of the important points.
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined: |
That is only because you deny the truth of the Bible, but if we are being careful about what words mean, there is evidence there that isn't in the other religions. There is evidence in other religions that just isn't there in Christianity.
If Jesus performed the miracles John describes in his gospel, which John says he described for the purpose of persuading readers to believe in Christ and receive eternal life through Him, it certainly is evidence. And if the miracles in the Quran or Hadith happened as described is that evidence?
It's evidence of Christ's deity and therefore His power to save. Would the Quran miracle be evidence of Allah's divinity and power over the heavens?
Only by denying the truth of the account is it not evidence, or as I put it earlier, by not regarding either Jesus or John as trustworthy. So faith comes first, then the things you have faith in are evidence?
But the other religions don't even make such claims in their writings and that of course was my point. They don't offer evidence, they assume belief and go from there. Well there are the miracles in Islam. The miracles in Buddhism:
quote: There are miracles all over the place in Hinduism - Lakshmi showering the poor with gold coins as a reward for selflessness after a prayer was issued. Krishna rescued 16,000 women from hell and married them all and simultaneously lived with them all in different houses so as to preserve their honour in the society they were in. Sri Padmapadacharya walked on water, Adi Shankara drank molten iron (and didn't die) to teach his followers the folly of copying all of his actions....
Reincarnation is taught in Hinduism and its offshoot, Buddhism, and you may come back as an animal rather than as a human being. I personally know a practicing Buddhist who has become afraid of what will happen to her when she dies because this is what she is taught. The reason Jesus is called "the hope of all nations" or "the desire of all peoples" and similar phrases is because they understand that there is suffering after death, and that Jesus is the only salvation from it that is offered.'' For Buddhists there is salvation in the form of Nirvana. The Buddha shows the path to escape from the cycle of suffering and karma. Likewise, Hinduism has moksha.
There are also multiple Hells in Buddhism, each designed for the punishment of a particular sin, which I learned early on in my investigation into religion before I ended up a Protestant Christian. which astonished me since we usually only hear of Hell in the Christian context. They often call them Naraka. In Chinese religion they are Diyu - ruled by the Yama Kings. There are frozen places, boiling places - mountains of knives you might be thrown off....
I believe there is one short section in the Koran that is about some event or other but not anything intended to prove the character of God IIRC Seriously, it's only as long as the book of Genesis. I have audiobook version of it if your eyes can't take it. I linked to 54 above - where the Noah story and the Lot situation are quickly recounted as proof of God's character.
And again your believing it is not the point, the point is that if it is true then it works as evidence, and those who do believe it is true regard it as evidence and base our faith on what it reveals. But if those other religions are true, then their religious claims must also work as evidence....
the idea that the humble disciples of Jesus, mere fishermen etc., could or would invent such complex fictionw is harder to believe than the accounts themselves; What about the idea that educated and intelligent men invented those mere fishermen etc as characters?
the unlikelihood that he would claim to have the objective of writing about Jesus' actions and teachings in a way that might persuade his readers of His reality and powers, Seems likely that someone might have the objective of writing about another person's actions to persuade people of their reality and power. Certainly we see that in other texts, especially religious ones. Sometimes people even write about themselves that way too.
quote: That's from a legal document, not even a religious text. Looks like a pretty blatant attempt to persuade people of the power, abilities and majesty of Hammurabi.
doesn't change the fact that it is intended as evidence and if true then certainly IS evidence for the claim that Jesus is God who saves us from Hell. Anyway, the takeaway here is that evidence should be something that indicates something is true. You can't say, 'if the claim is true, that is evidence that the claim is true' in any reasonable fashion. You have faith the claim is true. You can say that testimony is evidence of the truth of the claim. The strength of that evidence is open to debate, and there are many contradictory testimonies that people have made regarding the nature of gods, the afterlife etc. You have faith in the testimony in the Bible. You don't have corroborating evidence for that testimony. You only have the testimony and your faith in it. If a witness stood up and said you were a murderer, you might argue that technically that is evidence you are a murderer - but you'd also say people would have to be gullible to believe it without corroboration. That witness may have people that accept the testimony on faith. They, for whatever reason, trust the witness. But they don't have anything beyond their faith in the testimony. The testimony is the evidence - and its weak - and should be considered with skepticism without corroboration. Now those people that trust the witness - they probably have good reasons. They've known them for years, they're not ones to invent lies or nonsense, spin stories. They've known this witness to have been honest - even to their own detriment on a number of occasions etc. But nobody has reason to trust the Gospel writers - or indeed any of the authors of the books, letters etc in the Bible. For the most part, we don't know who they are, why they took pains to write those words, and whether there was any incentive other than recording truth for them to do it. Writing was not a cheap art - somebody likely compensated them for their works. Why would anyone pay? Maybe it strengthened their hold over a religious community whose tithes were someone's livelihood? We don't know. So how can we trust? The fact that many of the books contain a historical narrative isn't cause to trust the authors. That they claim the people and deities they write of have power to save us is not a reason to trust them. So why trust them? There is no reason. And that's what we mean when we say you have Faith and no evidence. You have nothing to justify your faith but your faith.
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined: |
Please give me one example from the Koran that you think is a miracle and what you think it is evidence of. Thank you. I already gave you "The Hour has come near, and the moon has split" and that this evidence that God has power over the heavens. Also the Global Flood.
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined: |
Except to say that such a weird assertion which gives no picture of a split moon to ascertain what on earth it claims to mean It's the moon. Only it has been split. Not sure what's complicated. Also the Flood, which I believe you are familiar with the details of. It means God can split the moon and flood the earth. He is powerful. It's not tricky. I mean, you could just read the Chapter and see for yourself, what the point is, I suppose, if you don't take my word for it.
can't compare to the narratives of Jesus They are miracles, which was the evidence you put forward. Narratives are another thing entirely. You could read Chapter 26. there is a narrative of a guy called Moses and some Pharaoh, some miracles regarding snakes.
or the parting of the Red Sea quote: That's in there too. Is this evidence for Islam then? Are miracles described in texts evidence or not? Can you explain why you trust the Biblical authors. Surely, writing historical narratives cannot be sufficient to earn your trust. Describing miracles cannot be sufficient to justify your faith. So why do you have faith in the truth of the Gospel testimony?
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined: |
They aren't believable miracles and I don't even know if they are miracles. You don't think dividing the moon into two, and then putting it back together is miraculous? I'm not sure I understand your criteria. Funny thing is - the Quran prophesied your reaction:
quote: It doesn't matter if they are 'believable'. You said "If Jesus performed the miracles John describes ...it certainly is evidence. " I'm asking 'If God performed the miracles Mohammed described, is that also evidence?' Believability is not relevant. I should also point out that Noah's flood and Moses' parting of the red sea are described. Are these not believable? I'm confused as to what you are trying to communicate here. Can you explain why you trust the Biblical authors. Surely, writing historical narratives cannot be sufficient to earn your trust. Describing miracles cannot be sufficient to justify your faith. So why do you have faith in the truth of the Gospel testimony? Edited by Modulous, : No reason given.
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined:
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It's clear that the bible is not evidence that any of the things written in them are/were real, just that someone - we don't even know who - wrote them. Not if we're following any modern-day scientific or legal evidential standards anyway. But this isn't science or law - it's history. Written documents are evidence in history. Having a rough notion of your age and nationality I know you almost certainly covered 'primary sources' and 'secondary sources' as part of your pre-GCSE history lessons. Much of the details of history as we know it, come from written sources. The broad strokes may be verified with archaeology, but seldom the details. To turn to the Bible - Paul is a primary source for understanding some of the concerns, questions and problems facing some of the early churches. For example:
quote: The miracles in particular... I mean we agree that writing something down doesn't make it automatically credible. But it also doesn't make it not evidence. Evidence can lack credibility and still be evidence. Evidence isn't proof - in the scientific sense of the notion rather than mathematical. Historical method - Wikipedia
quote: And so on.
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined: |
I'm convinced. John is an incredibly unique name, almost no one in history has ever had the name John, so if the name John is attached to the Gospel of John then there is only one person it could be, and that is the Apostle John. Just kidding. About the attachment of the name John to that Gospel Wikipedia says: So why did John get attached to this Gospel? My understanding goes like this. The first reference we know of to refer to this Gospel as John's is in the late 2nd Century. At the end of John comes the words:
quote: Which suggests some group of people wrote the text 'we' based on what they claimed was the testimony of a disciple. The name of the disciple is not given. We just know it is the disciple that Jesus loved. This disciple is NOT Simon Peter - as he often appears in the same accounts as this disciple:
quote: So the claimed authorship then relies on their being 3 particularly favoured disciples, and Peter can't be one of them leaving James and John. According to the internal logic of the story - James dies pretty early which would call into question his ability to testify/author the book in question. Thus, the argument goes, John is the one. There are other arguments, but that's the kind of evidence provided that the author / principle witness of the Gospel of John is at least intended to be thought of as John by whoever wrote it. The evidence is slim, and requires some tenuous argumentation to get there (the above is really the best I could find - coupled with the fact that other disciples get named but there is a pattern of not naming 'the disciple that Jesus loved' and John doesn't get named anywhere...). Other than relying on 2nd Century scholar's opinions there isn't much to go on. How is this relevant to the discussion? So while a (perhaps significant ) degree of faith is required to say John is the author, it is not without evidence. The evidence may not be sufficient for Percy to have faith in the conclusion, but it is apparently sufficient for many Christians.
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined:
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The evidence is sufficient for many Christians? Do you really think many Christians have looked into the evidence for who wrote John? Yes. Not 'most'. But many, for sure. It's not a hyper-obscure theological point held by some edge case of Christians. I expect most Christians actually think the Gospel of John is called that because that is what it calls itself right at the top! But I expect it's something that gets covered in plenty of seminaries and schools of divinity and that kind of thing.
Also, I wasn't sure if by Christians you meant all Christians, or only those Faith considers Christians. I don't think the distinction makes a difference to my point.
Anyway, the reason who wrote John came up is because Faith said that the Gospel author's account of Jesus' ministry can be trusted because he was an eyewitness. Indeed: the Gospel of John claims at least some of its contents were provided by an eye witness who it is at least implied, is John, but certainly a disciple. If you have faith that this is eye witness testimony, one can understand treating its claims with more credibility than someone who has faith that it is some person(s) unconnected writing a Gospel for financial reasons.
I've always had reservations about the Apostles being real people. Twelve Apostles, twelve Tribes of Israel? Too coincidental for me. Either way, I don't think its coincidence. Either it is a deliberately piece of symbolism constructed by its authors, or it was symbolism constructed by Jesus. A better example might be Jesus' journey to Egypt. Kind of reeks of a tortured narrative to squeeze a "...and out of Egypt I called My son" reference. There's no reason to suppose that if the story is remotely true, this was constructed by Jesus for symbolism. So either it's a coincidence, an author's conceit, or God's hand (which if all the Gospels are totally true would, I suppose, be Jesus' construction....). If we dismiss coincidence, then it's a matter of faith (or lack thereof) in the author as to which way to turn.
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined:
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What we name the discipline is irrelevant, what matters are the facts and whether they're supported by anything credible. Scientific evidence and historical evidence are not always the same. We don't have scientific evidence for the existence of Socrates. We don't have scientific evidence for the last years of Anne Frank.
To evaluate that we would normally apply evidential standards that we trust and the fact that we can't apply those standards tells us that the claims can not be supported. We can apply those standards though. We do apply those standards. You don't think people haven't used source criticism and historical methods on the various things discussed in the Bible I'm sure!
Finding something written down is evidence that someone wrote something down. It is also evidence regarding the claims that author wrote. How credible we decide that evidence is, varies, as I said.
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined: |
For me "many" would have to be a rather small percentage of Christians. I expect, however, it would be a large percentage of those Christians that have been exposed to the arguments and evidence for those arguments. I'm not suggesting all, but I haven't heard 'After hearing about why Christians attribute the Gospel of John to John, I lost my faith' a great amount.
Sorry if I guessed wrong, but at least here there doesn't seem to be any implication of an eyewitness You 'guessed' right. The fact that this disciple is present for the interaction between Peter and Jesus, is put at the Last Supper and various other scenes suggests more than an implication of being an eyewitness:
quote: The Gospel certainly says it was a disciple, and a very particular (though never identified) disciple, but the whole Gospel is a story filled with so much hooey that it's difficult to associate credibility with any of it. We agree on the credibility of the evidence. But a text that proclaims to be the testimony of an eyewitness is evidence even if we, on examination decide a) The eyewitness is unreliableand/or b) The testifier was not actually an eyewtiness The key part of this passage is "If you have faith..." I think what people accept on faith is a personal matter and it raises no complaint from me. But I could never agree that John *is* true (in the sense of literally inerrant) and *does* contain direct eyewitness testimony. I'm not trying to persuade you to agree that John *is* true. I'm just saying how one might go from the evidence for John's authorship to trusting John as a source. The relationship of evidence and faith. There is one, even if you personally don't think the evidence is of such a nature that it can justify the faith - the trust.
A couple of times now you've referred to the possibility of Jesus as an active player in the construction of his story, so I should make you aware that I don't believe Jesus was a real person. I did say 'if the story is remotely true' - the conditional was there to avoid this objection. Your view of this is not important. My point here was to say that in the example you provide - the 12 disciples and 12 tribes - there are some possibilities: 1) The story is true, but it isn't a coincidence because Jesus deliberately chose 12 as a conscious reflection of the 12 tribes2) The story is false and the 12 were chosen deliberately by the author for the same reasons. With the Egypt story - Jesus' journey to Egypt is not engineered by Jesus so option 1 in this case is out. So if the story is somewhat true (ie. the history is of a mundane Jewish preacher who had myth erected around him later) - we don't suppose it was a conscious effort by Jesus. He was a babe at the time. So either it was the author's conceit or...God had hand in the arrangement (or coincidence, but we were leaving that theory behind).
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined: |
Um, yes. That's part of my point. So we agree that the discipline we're talking about matters with regards to what should be considered evidence?
The only issue is its quality and credibility and whether it's supported by any other objective source. As I said in Message 655. Although there are no objective sources, just different kinds of bias.
A story in a book is not that. Where the story is located is not material - especially if we remember they weren't originally in a book A story can be credible. It being a story doesn't make it low quality in itself. The more it fits narrative structures typical of myth or fiction, the less credible of course.
It is also evidence regarding the claims that author wrote. How credible we decide that evidence is, varies, as I said. And as I said, it's evidence that someone - we don't know who - wrote a story. Yes you did say that. That's why I said 'also' as in, in addition to it being evidence that someone authored it, it is also evidence regarding the contents. It's also evidence of Hellenistic Syncretism.
We normally require evidence to support a substantive claim. In history - eyewitness testimony, claimed eyewitness testimony, and histories that say they are written after interviewing witnesses etc etc., are evidence. The question is, "does the evidence we have support the claim?" - not "is there evidence?"
What we have in the bible is a series of allegations requiring evidence. We both agree that many allegations in the Bible would require more evidence than we have to render them credible. But they are evidence, regardless of our view on their credibility. Evidence can be supported with other evidence. If we found Pilate's diary and there was mention of a curious Jewish rebel called Yeshua who claimed to be King of the Jews for whom he felt some sympathy due to his pleasant passivity for and whose crucifixion was the source of consternation followed by his followers claiming post mortem sightings...that'd be supporting evidence for some of the broad strokes of the story. The fact we do not have this supporting evidence doesn't render the original evidence non-evidential, nor would a sudden discovery of such a text suddenly render the Biblical account of the trial, evidential where it was not before. It's evidence, it's just not well supported. It is only supported by other author's who share common biases - and seemed to share unknown source material.
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined:
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You left off the closing part, "and we know that his testimony is true." Well I included back in Message 660, if that helps.
I suppose others will argue that this is just the way people wrote back then, but to me it looks like hooey written for rubes. "Hey, trust me, would I lie?" Yes, there are elements that imply that the disciple Jesus loved wrote the Gospel of John, but they're rather clumsy and heavy handed, and taken as a whole John seems like a typical piece of religious writing designed to serve a community rather than pass down an accurate history. I don't disagree.
Well, as you know I have a different perspective on this. We might agree on the degree of credibility, but we probably don't agree that it is evidence of what actually took place in the real world. I suspect we disagree about whether to label it "evidence" or not. Well...yes - that's what this particular argument has been about.
I would label the Gospel of John a religious text rather than evidence. If there's anything true in it, other than the obvious things like "Jerusalem existed" and so forth, we have no way of knowing what parts. I don't see why a religious text cannot be considered evidential. Suspect, sure - but evidential. Evidence doesn't mean 'true', or even 'likely true'. Evidence is some data left behind that we can interpret. The Gospels are this. You interpret the data to mean 'religious texts', that's what the texts are evidence of using your methods. Others assess the data as being more than just 'religious texts' but also 'reliable testimony of historical events'.
I have no problem with faith, just with claims of evidence where none exists. The Gospel of John *is* the evidence, in this particular case. Is the Code of Hammarabi historical evidence? I say yes. Even if there are a variety of supernatural claims in it, that I don't accept as supported by corroborating evidence. If the Gospel of John had corroborating evidence you'd find whatever was corroborated more plausible (for instance, the existence of Jerusalem). John alone is uncorroborated, further evidence may lend support to it. Just because there isn't corroborating evidence in some situation doesn't mean the original data is not evidence. Again Anne Frank wrote of some specific things for which there is no corroboration, but those things she wrote are still evidence even so. You can also have conflicting evidence. Two things which seem to contradict one another.
And I view faith that requires evidence as not faith at all. Really? I have faith in my bank. This is partly to the fact that they have consistently provided my money when asked, the government also provides a guarantee in case the bank does suddenly fail etc etc. The evidence justifies my faith. I have faith in this here bridge. It has stood for fifty years, and I know there are people whose job it is to inspect bridges for safety concerns. I have evidence that leads to faith. I have faith in my wife. If she tells me she met an extraordinary person doing an extraordinary thing, even though I have no corroborating evidence for this marvellous and improbable meeting - I have evidence of the trustworthiness of my wife's reporting and so I have faith her report is accurate. I said it to Faith earlier. If someone claims you murdered another person, you would not only not have faith in them, but you would implore the police/courts/jury to be likewise skeptical. That witnesses' spouse however, may well have faith in their testimony....based on evidence. Christians wouldn't believe what they believe if there was no Bible. They regard the Bible as being reliable enough to justify faith. Their opinion on the trustworthiness of the Bible - the evidence - is what justifies their faith. If they thought the Bible was unreliable to the point of being meaningless...they likely wouldn't be Christian.
Interestingly, Faith has given a somewhat similar definition several times (e.g., Message 681, "Blessed are those who did not see and yet believed."), even though at other times she has insisted that faith be supported with evidence, which is what you seem to be saying, too. The point being, that trusting the words of witnesses is a good thing, in John/Jesus' opinion. The witnesses are not direct experience of the resurrection, but they are evidence of it - and the point of the doubting Thomas story is to say 'trust in the witnesses of Jesus' resurrection'. It isn't saying that 'you are blessed if you believe in my resurrection even though you have absolutely no reason to do so. Like the natives in 'America' right at this minute who have no access to any of the reports of my resurrection'. It's just saying 'the witness reports of the disciples is good enough evidence upon which to believe and demonstrating that trust in these good people is a blessed act'
I did say 'if the story is remotely true' - the conditional was there to avoid this objection. Your view of this is not important. My point here was to say that in the example you provide - the 12 disciples and 12 tribes - there are some possibilities:
3) 12 were chosen deliberately by the author because it would be more appealing and convincing to his Jewish audience 1) The story is true, but it isn't a coincidence because Jesus deliberately chose 12 as a conscious reflection of the 12 tribes2) The story is false and the 12 were chosen deliberately by the author for the same reasons. That's just option two with an explanation. I didn't include the explanation as I assumed we both know that reflecting the 12 tribes of the Old in the New Testament would be appealing. The same kind of explanation could also be appended to option 1.
Jesus was a babe in the story, but wasn't necessarily a babe when the story was written Right, but I'm talking about the going to Egypt (ie if the story is somewhat true). If Jesus did go to Egypt it wasn't Jesus' choice to do so.
If Jesus was a real person, and if he played a role in constructing his story, the Egypt story could have been his composition. Yeah, I have no idea what your point is. If the Egypt story is true, Jesus did not invent it, nor was going to Egypt his idea. If the Egypt story is false, someone invented it. Whether it was Jesus or Judas or whoever - it doesn't matter. Agreed?
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined: |
No, sadly we don't OK. Scientific evidence and historical evidence are not always the same. Historical evidence includes partial written documents, usually written by biased parties about political or social phenomena.
I only care about the quality of what is being called evidence. As I said in Message 655, and reiterated in Message 690.
I think that the quality of evidence matters to the extent that something stops being evidence if it doesn't add support to or rebutts a claim. Plato writing about his teacher Socrates supports the existence, teachings and biographical details of Socrates.
Your position is that almost anything can be considered evidence My position is that written documents are evidence.
The bible is evidence that someone wrote something at a particular time and place but it is not evidence that what was written is true. It supports the claim. Not necessarily sufficiently, but it still supports the claim. When a jury is considering two conflicting witness statements, they weigh the credibility of each witness, and their story in deciding the facts of a case for a legal perspective. Regardless of the juries decision, both witness statements (say the victim's and the alleged perpetrator's) are evidence. When considering Socrates' biographical details we can look at the writings of Xenophon, Plato and Aristophanes. You may not think details of Jesus' biography are sufficient to demonstrate beyond any reasonable doubt the truth of those details - or even sufficient to accept their truth on a preponderance of the evidence. But it's still evidence.
quote: You are welcome to use 'evidence' colloquially - to mean 'that which supports something above a certain threshold of confidence based on a certain epistemology' or something. But even weak sauce sources are evidence. If I said "There was a man called Heliophanes in 30AD who bought wine for a whole village" you might well ask 'Where's your evidence of this?'. I'd reply 'I have none'. However, if I said "There was a man called Jesus who was called Christ around the same time period as Heliophanes" and you said "Where's your evidence of this?" I could cite the Gospels, the Epistles and Josephus. You might say "That isn't sufficient" but you'd hopefully also agree I have more evidence for the Jesus claim than for the Heliophanes claim.
When we talk about the bible here we are normally arguing about the fantastical claims made within it, not whether it provides evidence for, say, the existence of Nazareth or not. When you say 'provides evidence for', I'm reading that as 'provides sufficient evidence to justify belief'. And you are right if so, in my opinion. The Bible does not provide sufficient evidence to justify belief in the fantastical claims. But it is evidence regarding those alleged fantastic events.
It's evidential worth in the first case is zero, but for the second it has some value. I'd say it was close to zero. It doesn't make it 'not evidence', it makes it 'crap evidence'. If a suspect's best friend provides an alibi, we might argue this evidence is not very persuasive compared to say, being seen and recorded on live TV during the events. They are both still evidence. One gathers all the evidence, even that evidence which alone does not support the claim particularly well, and understand what the totality of the evidence is suggesting. It doesn't mean the weak, or even very weak, evidence is not evidence.
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Modulous Member (Idle past 279 days) Posts: 7801 From: Manchester, UK Joined: |
but calling it evidence that miracles are real or evidence that the events described actually happened does not seem fine. Why?
Evidence is about support for what is true, and when John says that Jesus turned the water into wine we know that isn't true, and that therefore John could not be evidence that he did, however weak. How do you know it isn't true? It sounds like you are weighing the evidence here. On the one hand we have a written testimony. But it conflicts with evidence of science. So you favour the latter. But you are still weighing the evidence. Because John is evidence, its just not good enough to overcome the objections.
Is John evidence that Jesus even asked the servants to fill the jars with water? Yes. If Jesus asked the servants to fill the jars, someone writing that Jesus asked the servants of jars is consistent with that. If Anne Frank wrote that her father asked her mother to fill jars this too would be evidence of this event.
That's unverifiable So? That doesn't prevent it from be evidence. It just makes it unverifiable evidence. Uncorroborated evidence, you might say.
I'm as unfamiliar with the Code of Hammurabi as the next guy (except I can spell it). It's actually spelt 𒄩𒄠𒈬𒊏𒁉
Does it really contain "a variety of supernatural claims?" If so, I don't see why anyone would ever want to accept something known to be false as evidence, Yes.
quote: How you decide to weigh this evidence may differ from say, an ancient Babylonian. You can see more of such text in the Code discussed in Message 530.
Similar to science, our confidence in what we know of history depends upon how tightly interwoven is the supporting information. Exactly. But that doesn't make a single strand not a strand. It just means it isn't interwoven.
But concerning some of the miracles John isn't alone. Jesus walked on water in Matthew, Mark and John. If John is evidence of Jesus walking on water then so are Matthew and Mark. Isn't this, for you, evidential corroboration? To some extent, but other considerations weaken the corroboration - such as the disagreements between John and the Synoptics, and the evidence of a shared source of the synoptics means using them to corroborate one another is questionable.
Sorry to repeat myself, but if the written word is evidence, and if other accounts of the same thing add corroboration, then it seems to me that you're forced to accept the obviously false. Just because something is evidence, it doesn't mean one has to accept it as true. Sorry to repeat myself. In law, two parties present evidence - the jury decides the facts.
Clearly you're not going to accept the miracles corroborated by multiple accounts in the Bible as real, but then what is you're justification for rejecting their reality? I don't accept something as true just because there is some evidence. There are conflicting pieces of evidence, there are pieces of evidence which call into question certain types of other evidence. We are both skeptical of eyewitness evidence, and one reason you have already cited is DNA evidence.
If you have real world evidence then it is genuine evidence. The Bible is real world evidence. It exists right here in the real world. Most of history as we know it is derived from studying writing.
The gathering of that evidence might represent a considerable effort combined with evidence not readily available, such as verifying Einstein's general theory by observing the effects of the sun's gravity on starlight, or verifying the existence of the Higgs Boson statistically by observing particle interactions. But it *is* genuine evidence directly derived with the help of instrumentation from the real world. The written word does not often have that quality and in many circumstances seems inappropriate to consider as evidence. Yes, the written word isn't scientific evidence. It's historical evidence. It certainly is less persuasive than direct experiential observation.
I'm using the religious definition of faith. Not really. You are using a definition of faith that means 'without evidence'. That is: 'blind faith'. But that's trying to win the argument by defining yourself right. Faith simply means 'trust'. Trust in certain authors, trust in God - trust where they might not be the kind of justification for that trust that we might have in other areas. But not trust without any justification at all.
I didn't quote the next sentence from here, it was a bit too specific so I left it out, but here it is in case there's any doubt this is speaking from a religious perspective: "Faith is a belief that one-day we will stand before our Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ." Also from that page:
quote: From wikipedia:
quote: Or
quote: from the same source;
quote: Someone writing that "a lot of other people saw it too" is horrible evidence, and in my view not even evidence at all. I don't believe a lot of people saw this impossible event, or that it even happened, so how could there be evidence of it, however weak? What does your belief have to do with whether it is evidence? The only evidence we have for many things is written. You either trust the author, or you do not. Not trusting the author does not make it 'not evidence' it makes it evidence you believe is incredulous or unreliable.
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