Modulous writes:
The most important thing about moral relativity is that it cannot really be used to determine if a certain act is definitely moral or immoral. Other moral systems need to be used if one wishes to engage in applied ethics to reach a single answer.
I think this statement muddles the issue. A single answer can be reached as long as the morality standards are defined.
Standard 1:
Basic Principle - Morality is defined by God.
Morally Good = What God says is Good.
Morally Bad = What God says is Bad.
Standard 2:
Basic Principle - Morality is defined by the resulting effects of actions towards other people.
Morally Good = Actions that help people.
Morally Bad = Actions that hurt people.
Each standard can be used to objectively define good and bad to reach a single answer.
Perhaps, for the non-God standard, we may not know if people were truly helped or hurt. But that goes for the God standard as well, we may not know if God actually says something is good or bad. Either way, it only seems to depend on if other people (the culture) agree with the principles.
Lots of people say Standard 1 (with God) is an "absolute standard" and that standard 2 (without God) is a "relative standard". I think they're both equal. It only depends on how the culture you're around agrees with the basic principles.
Both standards can be used to objectively determine if certain acts are definitely moral or immoral. Are niether of the standards relative?
Both standards depend on the culture to agree with the basic principle for "good" or "bad" to make any sense. Are both standards relative?
Or is "moral relativism" simply an overall-label for any and all moral systems. And once we define any moral system it is then no longer relative?