I had been assuming WWII, but you replied to me by talking about the 90's, and so I thought maybe I had guessed the wrong war. Since we now understand that it was WWII you were talking about, I think a reply to my question is in order.
You misunderstand. I was talking about the top marginal tax rate that was IN the 90 percentile range during one of the most properous eras after the end of ww2. I said nothing about the 1990's in that reply.
In any case I
answered your question, albeit with a question of my own.
Indeed; but to keep it from having an impact on the amount of money in circulation, we'd have to prevent every single person who receives a check from spending any of that money.
M just doesn't increase or decrease in a vacuum. Your caricature of an economy doesn't take into account rising or declining interest rates, productivity increases, debts, wage demands, and any number of significant impacts on a REAL economy. Jesus, how dense do you have to be to not get it?
This is unlikely, and so these government checks are undoubtedly going to impact the amount of money in circulation. With that cleared up, perhaps now you can answer the question: What is the impact of these government checks on the amount of money in circulation?
The inflationary pressure due to the amount of money in circulation is going to be mitigated by the fact that, you were entering a possible deflationary period, and/or the productivity gains due to increased demand and thus will lessen any inflationary pressures. You also have the role of government in controlling interest rates which can effectively add or take money out of the system. Ultimately, though an increase in the money supply can lead to inflation in the long run, it doesn't always because of the net effects of changes in supply, productivity, and government controls.
Productivity where?
In the broader economy. Where else?
If my earnings do not increase, then I have the same amount of money; unless you can keep my income rising with inflation, then the overall effect is a decrease in purchasing power. You're not accounting for the affect of the labor pool.
You are not accounting for the effect that inflation has on debts.
No; your dollars are worth less than the dollars of the person who only paid $100 for the same pencil. Value of money is determined by the amount of goods/services it can buy, using a simple equation: Goods/Money. In this case, the $100 has more value than your $135, since less money is used to buy the same good (p = pencil):
1p/$100 = 0.010p/$
1p/$135 0.007p/$
That real value of money is not the number next to the $ sign. It is not the amount of goods/services for which it 'might' be exchanged. It is the amount of goods/services for which it can be and is exchanged.
No, the value of my dollars has not changed. I just gave you more because I valued your pencil greater than Jill did. The value of that dollar is not independent of its purchasing power. Just because I want to pay $135 for your pencil doesn't mean that my dollars are automatically worth less. That would be INSANE. It would only hold true if you couldn't buy more with the money than you could have with the lesser amount.
Let's say you sell me your pencil today for $135, vice the $100 you were offered yesterday. Now you buy 45 gallons of gas for our RV instead of 33.3 gallons. Has your purchasing power increased or decreased?
You're oversimplifying the real economy. It just doesn't work the way your proposing.
You are using 'value' in two different ways here, which I think is the cause of fault in most of your argument. Can you separate them before we continue?
As a medium of exchange, money has value. That is why our system works. If money had no value, you'd be seeing more people burning it to keep warm.
I think your misapprehension is in failing to distinguish moneys inherent and its real value.
Edited by DBlevins, : erased unnecessary snark.
Edited by DBlevins, : No reason given.