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Author Topic:   When was the Book of Daniel written?
Jazzns
Member (Idle past 3938 days)
Posts: 2657
From: A Better America
Joined: 07-23-2004


Message 61 of 83 (536837)
11-25-2009 10:34 AM
Reply to: Message 51 by Peg
11-25-2009 6:47 AM


Bel and Darius issues
the evidence is that Nabonidus was ruling Babylon in a legal manner. If he held no claim to the throne, then how could he have taken rulership? The only way a non-blood relation could legally take the throne, was if he was married to a blood relation.
Again only by your say-so. Nabo was a ursurper and there is some evidence that he had support among the noble class. There has been no basis presented in this thread other than your wishing it so that Nabo needed to be married to anybody.
You seem to be assuming that Neb only had 1 daughter, why is that?
Because other daughters are totally and utterly irrelevant because we only have a minor, late dated reference to Nabo even being associated with Netocris at all. We have less evidence than that, exactly 0 evidence to be precise, that Nabo was married to other daughters of Neb.
Neriglissar was the son-in-law of Nebuchadrezzar II. If he was a son-in-law it meant that he was married to one of Nebs daughters. And as a son in law, he was not a blood relation, yet he could rule the throne.
Well yea! He was the husband of a princess who killed the existing king. His clame to the throne was by the end of a sword. Why is this so much in dispute? This seems obvious.
You seem to think that Nabo could not have been married to one of Nebs daughters. And yet we know that Neriglissar was married to one and becaues of that he was able to legally rule.
I have no opinion if Nabo was married to one of Nebs daughters other than that we have zero evidence that he was and therefore zero reason to claim that Bel was related to Neb other than by theological fiat. We have absolutly nothing but your say-so that Neriglissar and/or Nabo had any kind of marriage requirement to rule, it certainly was probably at least convienet for Neriglissar. We know he came to power because the Babylonians were not too pleased with Amel-Marduk so he quite likely had social support and was in a position to take over because of his wife. But that does not mean those same circumstances were necessary for Nabo and no evidence has been offered in this thread that that was the case.
Neriglissar was not of Nebs bloodline. He was a 'son-in-law' this means he was married to one of nebs daughers. This also makes his son, Labashi-Marduk, a non blood relative, yes?
No obviously Labashi-Marduk was Neb's grandson through Nitocris. And when Bel killed him it is evidence that Bel was in fact born before any alleged association between Nebo and Nitocris making the best case for Bel's relationship to Nitocris a 'step-son'. So you are in fact claiming that Bel, the person who terminated Neb's bloodline by the sword, is calling Neb his father by reagent tradition.....with no evidence.
I dont see any problem with this. Daniel was writing an account after it happend and described the events. Bel died in one night and the kingdom was then ruled by Darius...whats incorrect about that?
What is incorrect is that it is suggestive that Darius the Mede recieved the kingdom "that very night". Moreover, it was Cyrus who took over first not Darius the Mede. Last, "Darius the Mede" never existed as he is described by Daniel or at least there is zero external evidence that any such person ever was the king of Babylon in a way that verifies Daniel.
That kings list you've provided is for the Persians...the Darius Daniel is mentioning is not a Persian....he is a Mede.
So your just inventing some magical and non-evidenced Darius that was the king of Babylon in between Nabo and Cyrus? Moreover we have in that very reference a connection between Darius as the son of a PERSIAN king. Its a totally wrong reference, but it is a reference. So the Darius of Daniel is called a Mede, associated as the son of a Persian, and we know that there existed a pair of REAL Darius that WERE kings of Babylon that WERE related to Xerxes just not the way Daniel says they are.
But you would rather us believe that Daniel is correct and that we should upend all the other evidence that we have in favor of a "Darius the Mede" whos only purpose it seems would be as a theological shim to make sure that Daniel was not in error.
Again, Daniel is not wrong.
Because you are refering to a phantasm.
I will reply to your basic inaccuracies in a new post, this one is getting too long.
It would be nice to keep a seperate sub-thread for each dispute. If you wanted to split out the Bel and Darius issues into seperate replies subsequently that might also be a good idea.
Edited by Jazzns, : No reason given.

If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be. --Thomas Jefferson

This message is a reply to:
 Message 51 by Peg, posted 11-25-2009 6:47 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 64 by Peg, posted 11-26-2009 5:28 AM Jazzns has replied

  
Jazzns
Member (Idle past 3938 days)
Posts: 2657
From: A Better America
Joined: 07-23-2004


Message 62 of 83 (536846)
11-25-2009 11:00 AM
Reply to: Message 54 by Peg
11-25-2009 7:04 AM


Re: Why should we care about Josephus?
If he wrote in the first century CE that "No books have been added to the sacred writings since the days of Artaxerxes" then this is fairly good evidence that the book of Daniel was already among the sacred writings and that "since the days of Artaxerxes" no new books had been added.
Actually no it is not very good evidence at all. IN fact it is the worst possible evidence you can imagine. Josephus was an apologist. Josephus was in no position to know anything about 400BC and it is evident that he has theological reasons to believe that the scriptures are untainted by time. I will point out again that the time difference between Artaxerxes and Josephus is nearly half a millenia. Josephus is a horrible source to make this kind of claim.
And think about it....there were many books that were written that never made it into the bible canon...the Apocrypha for instance. Ask why the jews did not make those books a part of the sacred writings.
A whole bunch DID think they were sacred writings at various times or else we would not have them today! Copying text was a pretty big deal, usually only done by the priestly classes anyway, so if something in fact survives to this day it is pretty good evidence that it was regarded at least somewhat. We know that there were debates among the Hebrews about what was scripture and what was not. It just so happens that most of the textual traditions were controlled by priests and we have quite a good deal of evidence that seperate priestly traditions produced seperate and even competing texts. All this is happening during the time that you claim Daniel is regarded as scripture supposidly because the canon was closed. There just is no evidence for that Peg. I think you should seriously stick to the places in this debate where you actually have some scholarly legs to stand on. I have just about the same reason to take Josephus seriously about the existence of Daniel in the time of Artaxerxes as I do to take L. Ron Hubbard seriously about the existence of Xenu.
the scribes did combine them
The scribes seemingly did a lot of crazy things. But that still is not evidence that he is refering to the canon that we know AND I will continue to point out that he does not in fact list the books.

If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be. --Thomas Jefferson

This message is a reply to:
 Message 54 by Peg, posted 11-25-2009 7:04 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 65 by Peg, posted 11-26-2009 5:55 AM Jazzns has replied

  
Jazzns
Member (Idle past 3938 days)
Posts: 2657
From: A Better America
Joined: 07-23-2004


Message 63 of 83 (536855)
11-25-2009 11:42 AM
Reply to: Message 56 by Peg
11-25-2009 7:18 AM


LXX in the DSS
I was showing Iblis that the Greek Septuagint translation did not only contain the Torah (Gen,Ex,Deut,Num,Lev) as he suggests.
I don't think anyone is suggesting that it did only contain those. We are all just pointing out that it did not contain all of the current books all at once, that the first thing to be canonized was the TOrah. The second grouping of books to be somewhat canonized were the prophets EXCLUDING Daniel. YOu still have yet to explain that. Why did the Hebrews put in Isaiah and Ezekiel but leave out Daniel in the Prophets with capitol P?
The fragments of Greek Septuagint found among the dead sea scrolls prove that there were other books (the 12 prophets) that had also been translated.
I can't fathom why you would bring up the DSS with respect to the Septuagint tradition when not only is it the least represented amongst the traditions at Qumran, not only is Daniel not represented in the Septuagint tradition at all, Daniel is not even represented in Greek!!!
Even more damning for Daniel, is that in a number of instances in the DSS it is represented in apocryphal form.
The absolute earliest copies of Daniel that we have are totally inconsistent with your claim of canonization under Persian rule.

If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be. --Thomas Jefferson

This message is a reply to:
 Message 56 by Peg, posted 11-25-2009 7:18 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 66 by Peg, posted 11-26-2009 6:40 AM Jazzns has replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4956 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 64 of 83 (536967)
11-26-2009 5:28 AM
Reply to: Message 61 by Jazzns
11-25-2009 10:34 AM


Re: Bel and Darius issues
Jazzns writes:
So your just inventing some magical and non-evidenced Darius that was the king of Babylon in between Nabo and Cyrus? Moreover we have in that very reference a connection between Darius as the son of a PERSIAN king. Its a totally wrong reference, but it is a reference. So the Darius of Daniel is called a Mede, associated as the son of a Persian,
No,
there was a Darius of Persia...'Darius the Great'
but there was a Darius who was a Mede who ruled Babylon...he was put in the position by a higher authority, likely Cyrus
We are speaking about two differnt Darius's
Jazzns writes:
What is incorrect is that it is suggestive that Darius the Mede recieved the kingdom "that very night".
i dont think it means that at all. You are reading it to mean that,but Daniel is simply relaying the story of how Darius came to rule babylon. He says in one night Belshazzar was killed and then Daius was installed as the next ruler.
Jazzns writes:
But you would rather us believe that Daniel is correct and that we should upend all the other evidence that we have in favor of a "Darius the Mede" whos only purpose it seems would be as a theological shim to make sure that Daniel was not in error.
some scholars identify Darius with a certain Gubaru (Gobryas), who became the governor of Babylon immediately after its fall...with 'Darius' being the name he took as a ruler.
the Nabonidus Chronicle testifies to what happend in Babylon after its fall. It states that governers were set up in Babylon.
Gubaru, his governor, installed (sub-) governors in Babylon.
Daniel says that Darius the Mede was made king over the kingdom of the Chaldeans and this is intersting because the kingdom of Chaldea was the babylonian empire region...not the region of Persia and Daniel does differentiate between the two.
So Daniel isnt saying he was a King of Persia but a ruler over the areas of babylon which had just been taken by the Medes and Persians.
This is in harmony with the inscriptions that show certain men (Gabura) was installed as governors over the newly occupied territory of Babylon.
Edited by Peg, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 61 by Jazzns, posted 11-25-2009 10:34 AM Jazzns has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 69 by Jazzns, posted 11-30-2009 3:09 PM Peg has not replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4956 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 65 of 83 (536971)
11-26-2009 5:55 AM
Reply to: Message 62 by Jazzns
11-25-2009 11:00 AM


Re: Why should we care about Josephus?
im beginning to get the idea that the term 'apologist' is over used. Not only are christians apologists, but now jewish people are apologists too???
so what is an apologist anyway?
It seems to me that anyone who believes in scripture is an apologist. If thats the case then those who dont believe in scripture are simply apologists for higher critics. And apparently the words of apologists cannot be trusted, right?
Jazzns writes:
Josephus was in no position to know anything about 400BC
Josephus was in no position to know anything about 400BCE, but a 2nd century bce writer was? How about us...we are even further from 400BCE so we should throw out all the scholarly research about the ancient world.
I dont think you know much about Josephus if this is what you think of him. But Josephus is off topic so i'll leave it at that.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 62 by Jazzns, posted 11-25-2009 11:00 AM Jazzns has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 70 by Jazzns, posted 11-30-2009 3:10 PM Peg has not replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4956 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 66 of 83 (536976)
11-26-2009 6:40 AM
Reply to: Message 63 by Jazzns
11-25-2009 11:42 AM


Re: LXX in the DSS
Jazzns writes:
The second grouping of books to be somewhat canonized were the prophets EXCLUDING Daniel. YOu still have yet to explain that.
they didnt exlude Daniel, apparently they put it with the writings but this in no way has any bearing on the timing of Daniel.
i've already mentioned this, but i'll mention it again - the earliest manuscript of Daniel is found in the Dead Sea Scrolls and it dates from the first half of the first centuryBCE. This is evidence that the book of Daniel was
1. an accepted part of the Scriptures
and 2. Copies of it were in cirulation and were being copied.
Seeing you know a bit about how the priests made the copies of the books, you'll know that it was a lengthy process. It didnt happen over night, it took years for the copies to be made and spread abroad.
and to add to this as i already mentioned, the Aramaic vocabulary proves Daniel to be of the 5th centuryBCE or earlier.
There is also the traditional jewish view that the hebrew scriptures were finally compiled by Nehemiah who lived in the 4th century BCE.
And this does not come from Josephus only. The writer of second maccabees clearly states this:
2 maccabees 2:13-2:15
13 The same things are reported in the records and in the memoirs of Nehemiah, and also that he founded a library and collected the books about the kings and prophets, and the writings of David, and letters of kings about votive offerings. 14In the same way Judas also collected all the books that had been lost on account of the war that had come upon us, and they are in our possession. 15So if you have need of them, send people to get them for you.
Jazzns writes:
The absolute earliest copies of Daniel that we have are totally inconsistent with your claim of canonization under Persian rule.
ok so explain why it is written in 5th century Aramaic. And why it uses persian vocabulary.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 63 by Jazzns, posted 11-25-2009 11:42 AM Jazzns has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 71 by Jazzns, posted 11-30-2009 3:16 PM Peg has replied

  
Iblis
Member (Idle past 3922 days)
Posts: 663
Joined: 11-17-2005


Message 67 of 83 (536987)
11-26-2009 7:41 AM
Reply to: Message 37 by Peg
11-23-2009 6:54 AM


Septuagint & Josephus regarding Canonicity
there is no evidence for that assumption
Oh please, like I didn't give evidence. Message 27 Josephus says repeatedly that what the interpreters imported by Ptolemy translated was the Law.
Look, here he is again, describing what Ptolemy wanted a translation of, and why
Josephus writes:
And as I am desirous to do what will be grateful to these, and to all the other Jews in the habitable earth, I have determined to procure an interpretation of your law, and to have it translated out of Hebrew into Greek, and to be deposited in my library. Thou wilt therefore do well to choose out and send to me men of a good character, who are now elders in age, and six in number out of every tribe. These, by their age, must be skillful in the laws, and of abilities to make an accurate interpretation of them; and when this shall be finished, I shall think that I have done a work glorious to myself.
http://sacred-texts.com/jud/josephus/ant-12.htm
Laws, not "oracles". (Don't you think that if Josephus had the slightest chance of hawking his oracular resources here, he would have jumped on it?)
There are only three people before the 2nd century AD who even mention a translation in Ptolemy's time: Josephus; his source, the pseudo-epigraphic Letter of Aristeas; and Philo. And on the extremely relevant point that the only thing translated at this time was Moses, these three agree as one.
Here's Philo
Philo writes:
(31) He, then, being a sovereign of this character, and having conceived a great admiration for and love of the legislation of Moses, conceived the idea of having our laws translated into the Greek language; and immediately he sent out ambassadors to the high-priest and king of Judea, for they were the same person. (32) And having explained his wishes, and having requested him to pick him out a number of men, of perfect fitness for the task, who should translate the law, the high-priest, as was natural, being greatly pleased, and thinking that the king had only felt the inclination to undertake a work of such a character from having been influenced by the providence of God, considered, and with great care selected the most respectable of the Hebrews whom he had about him, who in addition to their knowledge of their national scriptures, had also been well instructed in Grecian literature, and cheerfully sent them.
Philo: On the Life of Moses, II
Legislation, not divination. Moses, not Daniel!
Iblis seems to think that the Greek Septuagint only contained the first 5 books of moses
Haha no, what I "seem to think" is that the Ptolemy story is a legend, based on a known hoax, repeated by a filthy Quisling posing as a historian, and acquiesced to by an Alexandrian mystic who devoted his life to showing how Genesis and the rest of the Pentateuch was an allegorical text describing the process of enlightenment in symbolic terms rather than a history, and therefore shouldn't just be rejected out-of-hand on the grounds that it was obviously mistaken about numerous events; and that the "Septuagint" being bandied about in these sort of contexts, as well as Josephus, are extremely ill-fitting tools in the hands of apologetics fans, who appeal to them when it suits their nefarious purpose (Matthew was right about the virgin! James really existed!) and then totally ignore them when they become inconvenient (The Apocrypha are scripture? Vespasian was the real King of the Jews?)
But all I need to argue against the claims advanced regarding the dating of Daniel is what we know: no one within a thousand years of the alleged event even says that anything was translated as early as 241 BC, except the Law of Moses.
If he wrote in the first century CE that "No books have been added to the sacred writings since the days of Artaxerxes"
So let's look again at what Josephus actually wrote
Josephus writes:
twenty-two books, (8) which contain the records of all the past times; which are justly believed to be divine; and of them five belong to Moses, which contain his laws and the traditions of the origin of mankind till his death. This interval of time was little short of three thousand years; but as to the time from the death of Moses till the reign of Artaxerxes king of Persia, who reigned after Xerxes, the prophets, who were after Moses, wrote down what was done in their times in thirteen books. The remaining four books contain hymns to God, and precepts for the conduct of human life. It is true, our history hath been written since Artaxerxes very particularly, but hath not been esteemed of the like authority with the former by our forefathers, because there hath not been an exact succession of prophets since that time
Note the larger context. Josephus writes "history". For the period from the Big Be to Artie of the Long Arm, he has a special source, which he goes to no end of trouble to match up with other historians and derive dates for; but none of his 22 books help him after that.
For the period covering Alexander through Antiochus Epiphanes, his primary local sources, the ones identified above as not being esteemed of like authority, are the First book of Maccabees and the eleventh chapter of the Book of Daniel. It therefore follows, as surely as the morning follows the evening, that Daniel is not one of his 22 books. Claims he makes about them, however spurious, are irrelevant to the question of the dating of Daniel.
This agrees extremely well with what he actually says about Daniel within his alleged Persian context Message 11 which is that, unlike the "real" prophets, he cuts a guy a break and doesn't make him wade through 5 or 10 pages of weeping and wailing for every historical marker.
He lays it all out for you, one thing after another, like an intelligence officer summarizing the weaknesses of rival empires in support of a guerilla campaign to be won by pitting them one against the other.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 37 by Peg, posted 11-23-2009 6:54 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 68 by Peg, posted 11-26-2009 8:40 AM Iblis has not replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4956 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 68 of 83 (537000)
11-26-2009 8:40 AM
Reply to: Message 67 by Iblis
11-26-2009 7:41 AM


Re: Septuagint & Josephus regarding Canonicity
Iblis writes:
like I didn't give evidence. Message 27 Josephus says repeatedly that what the interpreters imported by Ptolemy translated was the Law.
I understand that Josephus said 'the law' and I know that often the first 5 books are refered to as 'the law' or the 'torah' But does not mean that only the mosaic laws were being spoken of. Nowhere does Josephus specifically say the 'mosaic' laws.
Reading thru the Josephus link I see no mention of mosiac laws, but there are plenty of mentions of 'the books' in a number of places.
Josephus link writes:
15. And when the king had received these books from Demetrius, as we have said already, he adored them, and gave order that great care should be taken of them
Theodectes, the tragic poet, concerning whom it was reported, that when in a certain dramatic representation he was desirous to make mention of things that were contained in the sacred books
But be said he had been informed that there were many books of laws among the Jews worthy of inquiring after
Wherefore he said that nothing hindered why they might not get those books to be translated also
according to the king's inclinations, he gave order to Demetrius to give him in writing his sentiments concerning the transcribing of the Jewish books
And I let you know, that we want the books of the Jewish legislation, WITH SOME OTHERS; for they are written in the Hebrew characters, and being in the language of that nation, are to us unknown
You sould rethink this...read Josephus words carefully
twenty-two books, (8) which contain the records of all the past times; which are justly believed to be divine; AND OF THEM five belong to Moses
So out of 22 books, only 5 belong to Moses...IE the Torah...what do you think the other 17 books could be???
could it possibly be the hebrew canon as listed earlier???
Edited by Peg, : put quotebox around josephus quotes.
Edited by Peg, : No reason given.
Edited by Peg, : bolding didnt work
Edited by Peg, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 67 by Iblis, posted 11-26-2009 7:41 AM Iblis has not replied

  
Jazzns
Member (Idle past 3938 days)
Posts: 2657
From: A Better America
Joined: 07-23-2004


Message 69 of 83 (537722)
11-30-2009 3:09 PM
Reply to: Message 64 by Peg
11-26-2009 5:28 AM


Re: Darius issues
but there was a Darius who was a Mede who ruled Babylon...he was put in the position by a higher authority, likely Cyrus
What is your evidence for this?
i dont think it means that at all. You are reading it to mean that,but Daniel is simply relaying the story of how Darius came to rule babylon. He says in one night Belshazzar was killed and then Daius was installed as the next ruler.
And later on we have Daniel engaging with King Darius doing very "kingly" things like making laws. Is there any evidence that governors could make laws that they themselves could not overturn?
some scholars identify Darius with a certain Gubaru (Gobryas), who became the governor of Babylon immediately after its fall...with 'Darius' being the name he took as a ruler.
Where is the evidence? I'll save you the trouble, there is none. If there was then apologists would be all over it like ants to sugar.
Also, why wouldn't a 6th century Daniel call Gubaru by his real name especially if other contemporary writings did? This is making history fit the story not the other way around. This does not rescue Daniel.
the Nabonidus Chronicle testifies to what happend in Babylon after its fall. It states that governers were set up in Babylon.
*Gubaru, his governor, installed (sub-) governors in Babylon.*
Sure, and his name was Gubaru, not Darius.
Daniel says that Darius the Mede was *made king over the kingdom of the Chaldeans* and this is intersting because the kingdom of Chaldea was the babylonian empire region...not the region of Persia and Daniel does differentiate between the two. So Daniel isnt saying he was a King of Persia but a ruler over the areas of babylon which had just been taken by the Medes and Persians. This is in harmony with the inscriptions that show certain men (Gabura) was installed as governors over the newly occupied territory of Babylon.
None of which makes Gubaru = Darius. Again this is shoe-horning history into Daniel, not evidence for the correctness or attribution of Daniel whatsoever.
You also completely ignored my point that Daniel is associating Darius with a Persian by blood relation (son of Xerxes). Even if this suspect Darius was a real person, Daniel is in the same breath calling him a Mede and his father a Persian. Daniel is incorrect internally.
Introducing Gubaru also just give you more problems as there is no evidence that he was Mede either, even if "Darius" was a pseudonym for Gubaru. There is STILL no "Darius" and he STILL was not a "Mede" by both internal and external condradictions to the evidence.
Are you going to respond to my post about Daniel getting the exile wrong in Daniel 1?

If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be. --Thomas Jefferson

This message is a reply to:
 Message 64 by Peg, posted 11-26-2009 5:28 AM Peg has not replied

  
Jazzns
Member (Idle past 3938 days)
Posts: 2657
From: A Better America
Joined: 07-23-2004


Message 70 of 83 (537724)
11-30-2009 3:10 PM
Reply to: Message 65 by Peg
11-26-2009 5:55 AM


Re: Why should we care about Josephus?
im beginning to get the idea that the term 'apologist' is over used. Not only are christians apologists, but now jewish people are apologists too???
so what is an apologist anyway?
Yea, the term apologist has a definition. Are you reduced to complaining about my vocabulary?
My point is that Josephus was pious and therefore has no reason to be critical of his own scriptures. Josephus is a biased source. You seriously missed that point from my posts?
It seems to me that anyone who believes in scripture is an apologist. If thats the case then those who dont believe in scripture are simply apologists for higher critics. And apparently the words of apologists cannot be trusted, right?
If you want to call me an apologist for evidence then I'll take that.
Josephus was in no position to know anything about 400BCE, but a 2nd century bce writer was?
Exactly!! This whole thread I have been arguing that that 2nd century BC writer was also WRONG about the events of the 6th century! This entire discussion so far as been dedicated to the evidence that people writing hundreds of years out from the events get a lot of the fact wrong. NO ONE except YOU has suggest that a pseudo-historian got the facts right 500 years later!
How about us...we are even further from 400BCE so we should throw out all the scholarly research about the ancient world.
No. The problem is associating Josephus' work with scholarly research. Josephus provides no evidence and he is a pious apologist (oh noes, theres that word) for his religion. Regardless if he is writing from 100CE or 2009CE, the fact of what he said is not evidence for scripture being canonized at 400BC. Its just his word.
I dont think you know much about Josephus if this is what you think of him. But Josephus is off topic so i'll leave it at that.
Well, you are the one who offered Josephus as evidence for early canonization Peg. Are you conceeding this point?

If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be. --Thomas Jefferson

This message is a reply to:
 Message 65 by Peg, posted 11-26-2009 5:55 AM Peg has not replied

  
Jazzns
Member (Idle past 3938 days)
Posts: 2657
From: A Better America
Joined: 07-23-2004


Message 71 of 83 (537725)
11-30-2009 3:16 PM
Reply to: Message 66 by Peg
11-26-2009 6:40 AM


Re: LXX in the DSS
they didnt exlude Daniel, apparently they put it with the writings but this in no way has any bearing on the timing of Daniel.
The Prophets was "canonized" around 200BC and it does not include Daniel even though you are claiming that Daniel was regarded as scripture to the 2nd century jew. The Writings was "canonized" around 100CE!
I am only using the term "exclude" to be fair to you. The fact is they didn't KNOW about Daniel because Daniel didn't exist. There is no other reason to consider that the writings of a prophet, that is regarded to the same degree as Isaiah and Ezekiel, would have been left out of the Prophets if it was known.
Obviously we must also use "canonized" very loosely because unlike your previous assertion (by which you only used Josephus as "evidence"), it is still very much in scholarly dispute that the jews even at the time of the Writings considered their texts to be closed. Hence "canonized" is in quotes.
Seeing you know a bit about how the priests made the copies of the books, you'll know that it was a lengthy process. It didnt happen over night, it took years for the copies to be made and spread abroad.
And what evidence do you have that a full century is too short for Daniel to be circulated?
We know from the DSS that Daniel was pretty popular. This suggests that it was in vogue, which also suggests that it was novel. There may have been a point of emphasis on Daniel precicely because he was writings about things of interest to the Essenes at the time. Like the Maccabean revolt perhaps? We can never know exactly for sure but I contend that my interpretation is at LEAST as good as your assertion that the DSS representation of Daniel means it must be ancient.
and to add to this as i already mentioned, the Aramaic vocabulary proves Daniel to be of the 5th century BCE or earlier.
Prove is a very strong word. The language might be suggestive. No scholar worth his salt would make that conclusing on that single piece of evidence for which even that might be in dispute. You made that original assertion without any evidence and I simply stated that I am not in a position to provide a rebuttal. As I said before, even if the analysis of the language is true it dates the language not the book. I hardly think that constitues "proves Daniel to be of 5th century".
There is also the traditional jewish view that the hebrew scriptures were finally compiled by Nehemiah who lived in the 4th century BCE.
And this does not come from Josephus only. The writer of second maccabees clearly states this:
2 maccabees 2:13-2:15
13 The same things are reported in the records and in the memoirs of Nehemiah, and also that he founded a library and collected the books about the kings and prophets, and the writings of David, and letters of kings about votive offerings. 14In the same way Judas also collected all the books that had been lost on account of the war that had come upon us, and they are in our possession. 15So if you have need of them, send people to get them for you.
So from a book that would have been written pseudo-contemporaneously with a 2nd century Daniel, that does not mention Daniel, that only mentions the writings of the Prophets that we now know Daniel was not a part of, describing a pious textual tradition, you would have us derive the fact of Daniel's early origins? Color me unimpressed.
ok so explain why it is written in 5th century Aramaic. And why it uses persian vocabulary.
I was talking about your Persian timing (i.e. Artaxerxes/400BC) not the language. I am not very good with ancient languages and it bores the crap out of me to study them. I'll just note that Daniel was not written only in Aramaic (lending a little bit to #3 from the OP) but also Hebrew and that there are a number of linguistic artifacts that some people who are not bored to tears studying lingustic features have described as being unknown to the 5th and 6th century. I don't think that is the strongest evidence for the dating of Daniel so I don't really care.

If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be. --Thomas Jefferson

This message is a reply to:
 Message 66 by Peg, posted 11-26-2009 6:40 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 72 by Peg, posted 11-30-2009 6:03 PM Jazzns has replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4956 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 72 of 83 (537743)
11-30-2009 6:03 PM
Reply to: Message 71 by Jazzns
11-30-2009 3:16 PM


Re: LXX in the DSS
Jazzns writes:
I was talking about your Persian timing (i.e. Artaxerxes/400BC) not the language. I am not very good with ancient languages and it bores the crap out of me to study them. I'll just note that Daniel was not written only in Aramaic (lending a little bit to #3 from the OP) but also Hebrew and that there are a number of linguistic artifacts that some people who are not bored to tears studying lingustic features have described as being unknown to the 5th and 6th century. I don't think that is the strongest evidence for the dating of Daniel so I don't really care.
So after all this discussion, you are not the least bit interested in why a good chunk of the book is written in a 5th century BCE writing? Oh well, I guess you've done your homework and and everything you state proves that Daniel is wrong.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 71 by Jazzns, posted 11-30-2009 3:16 PM Jazzns has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 73 by Jazzns, posted 11-30-2009 6:33 PM Peg has replied

  
Jazzns
Member (Idle past 3938 days)
Posts: 2657
From: A Better America
Joined: 07-23-2004


Message 73 of 83 (537752)
11-30-2009 6:33 PM
Reply to: Message 72 by Peg
11-30-2009 6:03 PM


Re: LXX in the DSS
So after all this discussion, you are not the least bit interested in why a good chunk of the book is written in a 5th century BCE writing? Oh well, I guess you've done your homework and and everything you state proves that Daniel is wrong.
As I mentioned in my OP, I said that there is evidence for both sides of the argument and that I feel when you take the evidence for each of 3 positions that I described that the weight of all of it combined will support a late date. I never said anything about proving Daniel wrong, just that he is not historically accurate about the 6th century which is part of the evidence for a late dating. Just because that conclusion has theological implications for you should not be taken as a slight. You seemed to want to get into this discussion when you started a thread on it but are being taken aback by the rigors of defending your position?
I linguistic evidence is not a silver bullet or else there would not be a scholarly controversy over this issue. I'll also note that you have done nothing in this thread other than state that the linguistics is from the 5th century, you have yet to delinate any evidence to support that, I simply have not challanged you on it because I feel the other evidence is better.
If you feel that I am not giving the linguistic evidence a fair shake then defend it! Present the evidence showing that the language is of 5th-6th century origin and that that evidence should be considered above and beyond everything else that has been presented. I have said more than once that I consider that evidence to be unconvincing and nobody has challanged me on that yet. Tell me why I should regard it moreso than the internal and historical criticisms telling of its origins.

If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be. --Thomas Jefferson

This message is a reply to:
 Message 72 by Peg, posted 11-30-2009 6:03 PM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 74 by Peg, posted 11-30-2009 10:24 PM Jazzns has replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4956 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 74 of 83 (537788)
11-30-2009 10:24 PM
Reply to: Message 73 by Jazzns
11-30-2009 6:33 PM


Re: LXX in the DSS
Jazzns writes:
If you feel that I am not giving the linguistic evidence a fair shake then defend it! Present the evidence showing that the language is of 5th-6th century origin and that that evidence should be considered above and beyond everything else that has been presented. I have said more than once that I consider that evidence to be unconvincing and nobody has challanged me on that yet. Tell me why I should regard it moreso than the internal and historical criticisms telling of its origins.
I assumed you had already researched this aspect of Daniel. Here is a link and an excerpt from Wiki.
Daniel
Language
Scholars have speculated about the bilingual literary structure of Daniel - Chapters 2 through 7 in Aramaic, the rest in Hebrew. One of the most frequent speculations is that the entire book (excepting 9:4-20) was originally written in Aramaic, with portions translated into Hebrew, possibly to increase acceptance[61] - many Aramaisms in the Hebrew text find proposed explanation by the hypothesis of an inexact initial translation into Hebrew.
According to John Collins in his 1993 commentary, Daniel, Hermeneia Commentary, the Aramaic in Daniel is of a later form than that used in the Samaria correspondence, but slightly earlier than the form used in the Dead Sea Scrolls, meaning that the Aramaic chapters 2-6 may have been written earlier in the Hellenistic period than the rest of the book, with the vision in chapter 7 being the only Aramaic portion dating to the time of Antiochus. The Hebrew portion is, for all intents and purposes, identical to that found in the Dead Sea Scrolls, meaning chapters 1 and 8-12 were in existence before the late 2nd century BC.[62][63]
Contrary to the above, the Expositor's Bible Commentary (Zondervan, 1990) claims that the language of Daniel, in comparison with the Hebrew and Aramaic texts of the Hellenistic period, "prove quite conclusively to any scholar that the second-century date and Palestinian provenance of the Book of Daniel cannot be upheld any longer without violence being done to the science of linguistics." It adds that the serious mistakes of the Septuagint to render many Persian and Accadian terms, as the offices mentioned in Dan. 3:3, proves ignorance of words of the old past, already forgotten in the Hellenistic period, indicating that the Book of Daniel was written in the late 6th century BC.[64]
E.C. Lucas is more cautious in his assessment of linguistic arguments as well. Evaluating Collin’s approach he considers "the wide geographical spread from which the material comes and the implicit assumption that linguistic developments would have occurred uniformly throughout this area" a weakness and concludes, "The character of the Hebrew and Aramaic could support a date in the fifth or fourth century for the extant written form of the book, but does not demand a second-century date." He agrees with Collins that there are "clear differences" between Qumran Hebrew and the Hebrew of Daniel.[65]
[edit] Loan words
Three Greek words used within the text have long been considered evidence for a late dating of Daniel. All three are terms for musical instruments, κιθαρις (cithara), ψαλτηριον (psaltery) and συμφωνια (symphonia). The existence of the Greek word symphonia was cited by Rowlings as having its earliest known use in second century BC, but it has subsequently been shown that Pythagoras born in the sixth century BC used the term [66][67]. while its adjectival use meaning "in unison" is found in the 'Hymni Homerica, ad Mercurium 51'; both instances date from the sixth century BC, the supposed setting of Daniel.
It is known that "Greek mercenaries and slaves served in the Babylonian and Assyrian periods, some of whom were undoubtedly versed in Greek music and musical instruments." It has been speculated that this would explain the existence of the three Greek musical terms in Daniel's book. On the other hand, it has been claimed that the non-existence of other Greek words is a strong witness against the theory of the writing of the book in the Hellenistic period, since "it is inconceivable that Greek terms for government and administration would not have been adopted into Aramaic by the second century BC"[68] Even John Goldingay, a proponent of the late date, admits the Greek words hardly necessitate a very late date. [69]
There are also nineteen Persian loan-words in the book, most of them having to do with governmental positions. Judea was under Persian administration for two centuries until the arrival of Alexander the Great.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 73 by Jazzns, posted 11-30-2009 6:33 PM Jazzns has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 75 by Jazzns, posted 11-30-2009 10:57 PM Peg has replied

  
Jazzns
Member (Idle past 3938 days)
Posts: 2657
From: A Better America
Joined: 07-23-2004


Message 75 of 83 (537796)
11-30-2009 10:57 PM
Reply to: Message 74 by Peg
11-30-2009 10:24 PM


Re: LXX in the DSS
Well there is nothing there that I haven't seen before. I have read the wiki on Daniel in its whole and have seen similar arguments presented elsewhere.
You said though that the language "proved" the early date of Daniel when in fact both the very quote you offered and elsewhere it can be shown to be very much a matter of debate. I'll note that the explanation for the greek and persian artifacts is somewhat ad-hoc.
If you are willing to commit to this line of debate I would be willing to delve deeper into this but so far just copying-and-pasting the wiki I don't feel all that motivated to dig into a subject that I dislike so much. Do you have any more to offer? Do you have any response to my comment about why we should consider the linguistic evidence more than the rest of it? I personally think that if it is subject to debate, there are many other things that are not that are MORE indicative of the dating of Daniel than that. Feel free to disagree and please provide evidence.
I will comment on one quote from wiki.
It adds that the serious mistakes of the Septuagint to render many Persian and Accadian terms, as the offices mentioned in Dan. 3:3, proves ignorance of words of the old past, already forgotten in the Hellenistic period, indicating that the Book of Daniel was written in the late 6th century BC.
As far as I know, the LXX version of Daniel came later than the Hellenistic period so this argument is moot. It is also just a plain bad argument to say that because the Greek translators were bad then Daniel must have been old. The whole reason that the LXX exists is precisely because greek speaking jews were having a hard time with the hebrew and aramaic texts. There are MANY discrepancies between the LXX and other non-greek traditions. The much simpler explanation holds over the more complicated yet apologetically convenient one that Daniel "must have been really old because they didn't know some words".

If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be. --Thomas Jefferson

This message is a reply to:
 Message 74 by Peg, posted 11-30-2009 10:24 PM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 76 by Peg, posted 12-01-2009 4:55 AM Jazzns has replied

  
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