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Member (Idle past 4653 days) Posts: 175 From: Klamath Falls, OR Joined: |
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Author | Topic: Smoking-Gun Evidence of Man-Monkey Kindred: Episode II... Tails | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||
arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1369 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
1/3 of a 100 is 66 and not 23 100 / 3 = 33.33... 23 < 33.
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macaroniandcheese  Suspended Member (Idle past 3953 days) Posts: 4258 Joined: |
no sweetheart. 1/3 of 100 is 33.3333333...
haha beat me to it. This message has been edited by brennakimi, 01-15-2006 09:22 PM
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AdminAsgara Administrator (Idle past 2328 days) Posts: 2073 From: The Universe Joined: |
You may want to check your numbers again.
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Trixie Member (Idle past 3731 days) Posts: 1011 From: Edinburgh Joined: |
What's sloppy about stating that 23% is less than 33%? I'd say that was accurate. Anyway, others have pointed this out.
What I want to know is what is the "whole" story that they didn't give. You didn't give it either. I can't access the whole article on-line, so I would ask that you tell us what it is you're getting at. We can't really have a discussion until we know what we're trying to discuss. Added by edit - the information I'm asking for is what is wrong with what talkorigins says about the Dubrow et al (1988) article. This message has been edited by Trixie, 01-15-2006 09:30 PM
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JJMorgan Inactive Member |
I meant to say 100 - 1/3 (100) is 66 and not 23. Regardless, talkorigins pumped up the numbers and that is the main point. Plus there is the malformation/correlation.
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JJMorgan Inactive Member |
Here is why the malformation correlation is important:
quote: In short, pumped up numbers and deception by ommission.
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1369 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
meant to say 100 - 1/3 (100) is 66 and not 23. Regardless, talkorigins pumped up the numbers and that is the main point. Plus there is the malformation/correlation. 1/3 of 100 is still 33. i'm looking for where they get the "100" bit from. but second article you posted seems to be talking about the 23 out of 33 vestigal tails that are TRUE tails, not pseudo-tails. 10 pseudo-tails out of 33 tails is still less than 1/3.
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1369 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
this is a very old creationist fallacy that "vestigial" means "serves no function whatsoever." it does not.
quote:
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Trixie Member (Idle past 3731 days) Posts: 1011 From: Edinburgh Joined: |
talkorigins stated
More than 100 cases of human tails have been reported in the medical literature. Less than one third of the well-documented cases are what are medically known as "pseudo-tails" (Dao and Netsky 1984; Dubrow et al. 1988). Dubrow et al stated that
There have been 23 true vestigial tails reported in the literature since 1884. If less than a third of the over 100 tails are considered "pseudo-tails", that means that less than 33% are considered "pseudo-tails". The other two thirds aren't given the name "pseudo-tails" because, medically speaking they are not considered to be tails. talkorigins hasn't pumped up the numbers, you've misunderstood what the two different quotes are actually saying. Again, further information would be helpful, especially how you consider the malformation/correlation to be relevant.
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JJMorgan Inactive Member |
Here is what talkorigins said again:
More than 100 cases of human tails have been reported in the medical literature. Less than one third of the well-documented cases are what are medically known as "pseudo-tails" (Dao and Netsky 1984; Dubrow et al. 1988).taken from: 29+ Evidences for Macroevolution: Part 2 Now this would mean 66 true tails but that is not what Dubrow said. Dubrow said 23 true tails if memory serves and there is the malformation/correlation mentioned previously which I believe talkorigins does not mention. In short, pumped up numbers and deception by omission.
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JJMorgan Inactive Member |
I would suggest following the thread debate I cited earlier. It has a cell biologist in it. I don't think the tail argument is a good argument.
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nwr Member Posts: 6409 From: Geneva, Illinois Joined: Member Rating: 5.3 |
More than 100 cases of human tails have been reported in the medical literature.
Presumably that's where your 100 comes from.
Less than one third of the well-documented cases are what are medically known as "pseudo-tails"
Are you assuming that the 100 were all well-documented? Or could the "well-documented cases" be a smaller subset?
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Trixie Member (Idle past 3731 days) Posts: 1011 From: Edinburgh Joined: |
Not quite. In medical terms the word "pseudo" is only used when the organ bears close resemblance to the actual organ in question. My reading of the information that you provided was that the other 66% don't qualify to be called pseudo-tails because they don't have the complex structures necessary i.e., they fail the tail test. They're not even pseudo-tails, let alone tails.
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JJMorgan Inactive Member |
TO: Trixie
100 "mixed tails" minus 1/3 (100) Pseudo tails = 66 True tails/non-psuedo tails. Plus you continue to ignore the malformation/correlation. TO: all I think it is in the biology that the whole argument breaks down. See the cell biologist debate thread alluded to earlier.
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JJMorgan Inactive Member |
quote: I believe it is merely a pathological malformation. TalkOrigins does not mention the malformation/correlation. Deception by omission.
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