Wasn't Matthew's gospel translated from Hebrew into Greek by James the Less?
I haven't heard that one but it isn't impossible. But, if James the Less did translate it from Hebrew into Greek then it is different to the gMat that we have as our one shows no signs of being translated from Hebrew, all scholars agree on this.
Is not Luke considered a historian and the book of Luke and Acts ascribed to him?
Indeed, although he wasn't a very good historian, but the keyword is 'ascribed', the books were simply allocated to Paul's companion. But technically speaking, the books were anonymous, they may well be correctly allocated to Luke, but no one knows for certain.
Irenaeus, Clement, Origen and Tertullian all believed Luke wrote both.
But that is a non-sequitur though isn't it? What they believed has no bearing on the truth, the books don't suddenly become Luke's just because some people believe they were his.
Luke traveled with Paul so his writings would date fairly early. So if Luke wrote the book of Luke it could not have been long after the disciples died.
And if Luke didn't write it?
However, I am not going to labour the point. I just find it a very interesting FACT that all four Gospels are anonymous works (that's why they are all headed with the words 'according to'), with the author's names allocated to them hundreds of years after the disciples died.