In the "Bible: Word from God or Not" thread
Message 1
The treatment of virgins in the following passage from Numbers came up
Numbers 31:17-18 writes:
Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him. But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.
This passage was defended as not constituting rape since Deuteronomy 21 details the law in this respect.
Deuteronomy21 writes:
10 When you go to war against your enemies and the LORD your God delivers them into your hands and you take captives,
11 if you notice among the captives a beautiful woman and are attracted to her, you may take her as your wife.
12 Bring her into your home and have her shave her head, trim her nails
13 and put aside the clothes she was wearing when captured. After she has lived in your house and mourned her father and mother for a full month, then you may go to her and be her husband and she shall be your wife.
14 If you are not pleased with her, let her go wherever she wishes. You must not sell her or treat her as a slave, since you have dishonored her.
Not wanting to take the topic off course I thought it best to suggest a new topic.
The question is, does this passage describe rape?
If this is rape, how does one who believes the Bible is the "Word of God" reconcile this issue? Does the process described in Deuteronomy change this act to something else?
Definition of Rape from Answers.com
Rape
1. The crime of forcing another person to submit to sex acts, especially sexual intercourse.
2. The act of seizing and carrying off by force; abduction.
3. Abusive or improper treatment; violation: a rape of justice.
I would guess this would go into "Bible Study" or "Faith and Believe" forum.
Edited by iceage, : No reason given.
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