In the Sacrifice thread I asked whether or not Jesus had free-will regarding his crucifixion.
Message 55
None of the theists in that thread were able to adequately answer that question.
The problem is this:
An infallible source of immutable truth has made it known that a certain future event will take place.
The key person in that event must at one point take the necessary “decisions” and actions in order for this event to actually physically occur.
This person is fully aware of the destiny that awaits him as a matter of immutable truth.
This predicted immutable truth is also known to many others and is indeed a matter of public record.
How can the individual involved be said to have “free-will” regarding this event?
They can only “decide” to take a single course of action. The sole course of action that results in the immutable future truth. How could this person even have the ability to do anything else given the immutability of the truth in question?
If free-will is not the ability to choose between alternate future outcomes what is it?
More generally - If we, as humans, can know certain future events as a matter of God given certainty how can we be said to have free-will regarding the actions required to make those outcomes happen?
Surely we cannot?
Does Biblical prophecy therefore necessarily compromise the whole idea of man's free-will?
Edited by Straggler, : No reason given.
Edited by Straggler, : No reason given.
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