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Author | Topic: John's Double Ending | ||||||||||||||||||||
Jon Inactive Member |
The Gospel of John has two endings:
quote: What I find interesting is that these two endings are so similar; they both follow a simple form of 'Jesus did more stuff, we don't want to write it down, hopefully what we did write will convince you, have a nice day', though they do it in slightly different orders. So, what might explain this? Were the stories that made up the two separate endings part of the same tradition, and so ended similarly? Were they from two separate traditions that just happened to follow that same form? Or, did the redactors adding chapter 21 just tack on that little bit so as to make the new ending look like the old one? Jon Edited by Jon, : Icon; and apostrophe glitch Check out Apollo's Temple! Ignorance is temporary; you should be able to overcome it. - nwr
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Admin Director Posts: 12816 From: EvC Forum Joined: Member Rating: 2.5 |
Thread copied here from the John's Double Ending thread in the Proposed New Topics forum.
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 2779 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:From the book, "When Women Were Priests":
One theory, according to this book, is that the Johannine community wanted to blend with the Petrine community. In John's Gospel, Mary Magdalene is presented as a model for discipleship, not Peter. By emphasizing Peter's leadership they would be more acceptable to the Petrine orthodoxy.
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PaulK Member Posts: 17181 Joined: |
Another view I've hear of is that John 21 is the "missing ending" of Mark (although it is far from certain that there WAS a lost ending to Mark). The content is roughly what we might expect - agreeing with Matthew rather than Luke, however the styles of John and Mark are far enough apart that I would have thought that if it were true it would be widely accepted by now.
The clear disagreement between Matthew and Luke may be another reason for the double ending. Perhaps John acquired two endings, one agreeing with each and later redactors or copyists brought them together, finding themselves unable to reject either (just as the additions to Mark were preserved). Edited by PaulK, : No reason given.
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iano Member (Idle past 1262 days) Posts: 6165 From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland. Joined: |
Given that "double ending gospel of John" produced this thread at second from top in Google, could someone tell me how they conclude a "double ending" to John?
I mean, how does one conclude something appearing mid-stream an ending (other than simply saying so)?
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Coragyps Member (Idle past 56 days) Posts: 5553 From: Snyder, Texas, USA Joined: |
Uh......, you could read what was quoted? The first above sure sounds like a wrapping-up.
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iano Member (Idle past 1262 days) Posts: 6165 From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland. Joined: |
To you. Any advances on "it sounds like to me"?
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 2779 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:Different writing style. Unfortunately, I can't find the site I ran across the first time that gave a more detailed analysis, but here is some info from Edgar Goodspeed:
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 2779 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:Since there were various "sects" of Christianity in the early days and each had their own books they considered authoritative, I can understand the need to harmonize. That was the SOP of the orthodox. If they wanted them in the orthodox flock, they needed to have something familiar.
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Jon Inactive Member |
I guess the main thing I was hoping to investigate was why the endings are so similar.
The additional endings of Mark, for example, bear no resemblance to the first ending. The additional ending of John, however, wraps up in the same way as the first ending. Now I do believe that there is no evidence that this gospel ever existed without this second ending (unlike Mark), that is, no texts have been found that end at chapter 20. On this, I'd say, it's almost certain that chapter 21 was the responsibility of the original redactors—responsible for the rest of the gospel having the form it presently has. At the same time, chapter 21 is clearly an addition; chapter 20 has a wrap-up phrase common even today, and so must have been the end to an original piece used by the redactors—additionally, such out of place passages aren't rare in John, since the redactors, unlike the authors of the other three gospels, used something of a 'scissors-and-glue' approach for compiling their gospel. Now, the part that intrigues me is the similarity of the two endings. When chapter 21 was pasted to the end of John, what evidence do we have that might tell us whether the similar part (21:24–25) was originally part of that pasted piece or a part added by the redactors who pasted it onto chapter 20 in order to make the new ending look like the old one (20:30–31)? Jon Check out Apollo's Temple! Ignorance is temporary; you should be able to overcome it. - nwr
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