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Yes, except that the OP specifically requested a focused discussion on whether or not this phrase was an idiom.
More accurately on whether it was an idiom with a meaning compatible with the time Jesus supposedly spent in the tomb, according to the Gospels. As your quote makes clear.
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Correct, because Mt 12:40 is not what you claimed to be a "problem".
And that is sophistry. The disagreement between the obvious interpretation of Matthew 12:40 and the time Jesus supposedly spent in the tomb is the issue.
And let us note that you aside:
But the timetable IS the issue!
When I was discussing the relationship between the phrases "three days and three nights" and "on the third day" thus trying to drag the time Jesus supposedly spent in in the tomb into a discussion where it was not relevant.
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I've been simply trying to address the OP, which specifically asked for evidence that Mt 12:40 uses an idiom.
And you have been trying to argue that the meaning is compatible with the time Jesus supposedly spent in the tomb, despite finding no evidence worth mentioning.
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I have presented evidence, though you may refuse to accept it. You may have rejected my arguments, but that does not mean that they have been refuted.
I have rejected your arguments because I have refuted them
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I have felt the need to repeat my arguments very carefully and pedantically when people here don't seem to have understood them. Perhaps you find this "arrogant and insulting", and perhaps you see this repetition as "bluster", but that is not my intent.
Which is not what I am referring to, at all. Remember
Message 52. Just arrogant (and careless) bluster which contributed nothing.