I don't see how a population of H. neanderthalensis known to exist at 35k years ago and a population of H. sapiens known to be in the same region at the time conflicts with Out-Of-Africa. What this evidence shows is that the gene flow between the populations may have continued more recently than previously hypothesized.
The issue of interbreeding was discussed in the other thread (linked to in the OP). But basically, the OOA tree model fails to account for the fact that while we carry recent African-origin genetic material we also carry genes of recent non-African origin, which is and always has been the MH position.
The fact that this person's material didn't make it into today's gene pool also supports the MH explanation that the paucity of lineages outside of Africa results from lineage extinctions.
The question now is why, with such recent crossings, is there not more neanderthal DNA in present sapiens populations.
According to the article, the individual in question is not an ancestor of any modern human populations.
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