Register | Sign In


Understanding through Discussion


EvC Forum active members: 38 (9270 total)
3 online now:
Newest Member: Tiktaalik
Post Volume: Total: 923,131 Year: 3,453/6,935 Month: 85/198 Week: 33/55 Day: 2/6 Hour: 0/0


Thread  Details

Email This Thread
Newer Topic | Older Topic
  
Author Topic:   Did the coming of Jesus render the Law of the old testament null and void
ringo
Member (Idle past 1033 days)
Posts: 20940
From: frozen wasteland
Joined: 03-23-2005


Message 6 of 80 (665724)
06-16-2012 12:34 PM
Reply to: Message 1 by LexM1985
06-16-2012 7:48 AM


LexM1985 writes:
Also, I believe that Psalm 19 asserts that Mosaic law is perfect.
Psalm 19:7 says that the "law of the Lord" is perfect. There's God's law, there's the Mosaic law, there's Levitical law, there's Jewish law.... It's a jurisdictional nightmare. Jesus may have been deliberately ambiguous when He said "the Law", or He might have meant something like what Paul said in Romans 2:
quote:
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness...

This message is a reply to:
 Message 1 by LexM1985, posted 06-16-2012 7:48 AM LexM1985 has not replied

  
Newer Topic | Older Topic
Jump to:


Copyright 2001-2023 by EvC Forum, All Rights Reserved

™ Version 4.2
Innovative software from Qwixotic © 2025